Greek (SBLGNT): ἔσχατος ἐχθρὸς καταργεῖται ὁ θάνατος
YLT: "the last enemy is done away -- death"
ESV: "The last enemy to be destroyed is death."
καταργεῖται is present passive indicative third singular of καταργέω (bring to an end, make to cease, to render useless, annul).
One question I have is what's the derivation of the language depicting death as an enemy.
ἐχθρὸς is applied to Satan in Matthew 13:25, 28, 39 (he's the Enemy), it's used generically in Romans 12:20. Paul asked the Galatians whether he became their enemy by imparting truthful counsel to them, and James warns that if anyone loves the world, he is making himself an enemy of God (James 4:4). Therefore, what influences Paul to employ this language?
Jeffrey Keiser suggests that Psalm 8:7 LXX might supply inspiration for viewing death as an enemy. Compare Euripides, Alcestis 62-71.
See https://comingbacktolife.library.mcgill.ca/article/view/9/65
Others point to Genesis 3:19 and all that transpired in that account: see also Revelation 6:8.
A verse that occurred to me is Ecclesiastes 8:8 (ESV): "No man has power to retain the spirit, or power over the day of death. There is no discharge from war, nor will wickedness deliver those who are given to it."
There are a host of intriguing issues raised by Paul's language in 1 Corinthians 15:55-57. For instance, the apostle utilizes the vocative to address death, which is not the normal usage of the vocative case. Secondly, Paul speaks of death's "sting." Compare his language with the Hebrew of the OT texts he quoting and see the LXX.
Friday, April 21, 2023
Why Depict Death As An "Enemy"? 1 Corinthians 15:26
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8 comments:
Acts ch.14:16,NIV "in the past, he let all nations go their own way. "
I have been trying to get a conversation going about the post mortem fate of those who died without receiving the witness necessary to qualify one for eternal life if as Christendom's theologians insists all opportunity for a witness and probation ends at death for everyone all that is left is to conclude that all such and suffering eternally through no fault of their own.
And what about scriptures like :Acts ch.17:30NIV"In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent."
If JEHOVAH'S overlooking wrongdoing committed in ignorance means a grant of eternal life why bother with the preaching of God's word?
I've seen theologians appeal to Hebrews 9:27, And just as it is appointed for man to die once, and after that comes judgment,
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It could be that our ideas as to what constitutes this Judgment need adjusting
For instance Revelation ch.20:12 NIV"...and another book was opened, which is the book of life:..."why would the book of life be opened during this Judgment ,let's hope that none are suggesting that. JEHOVAH or his Messiah need to consult a written record so as to be certain of whom they have granted eternal life.
Also Luke ch.11:32NIV"The men of Nineveh will stand up at the judgment with this generation and condemn it, for they repented at the preaching of Jonah; and now something greater than Jonah is here."
Obviously the men of Nineveh will not share in the first resurrection so obviously not only those in the first resurrection can hope for a favourable judgment .
Romans ch.6:7NIV"because anyone who has died has been set free from sin." Our death is the penalty for the sins we have committed in this life divine Justice exact no further punishment on us for sins committed in our present life .
Regarding the book of life and other "scrolls" that will be opened in the future, they seem metaphorical/figurative to me. Compare Daniel 7:10 (NIV): A river of fire was flowing,
coming out from before him.
Thousands upon thousands attended him;
ten thousand times ten thousand stood before him.
The court was seated,
and the books were opened.
About the judgment, I've often wondered why Jehovah and Christ would raise somebody from the dead just to tell them, you're doomed for all eternity. It appears to be redundant, unnecessary and illogical. But I've never had anyone attempt to explain that one to me. Revelation says people will be judged for their deeds. But which ones? As you note, Rom. 6:7 indicates people will not be raised and judged for their past deeds.
My point about the opening of the book of life is that if only those in the first resurrection get their names recorded in the book of life. What need would there be to open this book during the millennium,the opening of the book of life is an invitation to those who are part of the later resurrection.
Also if only those in the first resurrection get their names in JEHOVAH'S book of life would death be the last enemy that is conquered by the millennial kingdom?
" the vocative to address death, which is not the normal usage of the vocative case."
1) if I was desperate to prove the trinity & stupid enough, I would use this to say death is a person
2) isn't this similar to an illustrative clause where grammatical rules are "broken"
i.e God is my Rock - normally Rock should be nominative (masculine) for it to be modifying "God" however since this is "illustrative" the noun is its "normal" self (feminine in Greek off the top of my head)
This is very hard to explain, hope you get the gist.
Servant, I agree that those in the first resurrection cannot be the only ones in the book of life
Anonymous, my time is tight today, but the vocative case is used for persons normally, but Paul apparently personifies "Death" without making it a person :-)
Of course, this was an old usage in Attic and Koine, to personify things like death, love or war, etc. Therefore, sorry Trinitarians, if they were to think that way.
I see what you're saying and it is true that metaphorical/figurative uses can get messy sometimes. The word petra is feminine. Compare Matthew 16:18.
Cf. Isaiah 51:1 LXX
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