Greek: μακάριος ὁ ἀναγινώσκων καὶ οἱ ἀκούοντες τοὺς λόγους τῆς προφητείας καὶ τηροῦντες τὰ ἐν αὐτῇ γεγραμμένα, ὁ γὰρ καιρὸς ἐγγύς.
"Blessed is he that readeth and they that hear the words of this prophecy and keep those things which are written therein for the time is at hand" (Revelation 1:3 KJV)
18 comments:
Why does that commentary include a Hebrew word?
The source is the exegetical key to the NT. For one thing, Revelation is replete with Semitisms. It's known as one of the books filled with them. Secondly, since the OT and NT are intertwined, to see a Hebrew word is not that surprising. Finally, the word is brought up, in order to account for a possible epexegetical use of a construct.
John also mentions Hebrew in Revelation
https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/new-testament-studies/article/abs/semitisms-and-septuagintalisms-in-the-book-of-revelation1/5F7128F6F5806450390CE55C9185C2D5
John mentions Hebrew?
Yeah, I was thinking of Revelation 9:11 and 16:16.
Cambridge Bible on Revelation 1:5:
The balance of evidence is in favour of the reading “loosed us:” the preposition “in” might easily, in a Hebraistic book like this, be used of an instrument, where we should say “by,” or “with.” So we should probably render “redeemed us from our sins by His own Blood”—the Blood of Christ being conceived as the price of our redemption, as in 1 Peter 1:18-19—not, as in Revelation 7:14, Revelation 22:14 (according to the preferable reading), and perhaps in St John’s 1 John 1:7, as the cleansing fountain foretold in Zechariah 13:1.
Notice the use of "Hebraistic"
Appropriations from Hebrew, but the two instances are telling the audience what the two words are in Hebrew. The first coming from Job, where it is synonymous with sheol. IMO the revelation has turned its meaning into a greek one.
The second is odd. As someone translating and transliterating Hebrew with understanding, why not mountain Megiddo or hill Megiddo?
https://jewsforjesus.org/learn/the-book-of-revelation-is-as-jewish-as-it-gets
Came across this, which which demonstrates some of the cross references, but I still don't see revelation as a hebraistic text.
Reminds me of Ezekiel 10:8 KJL with the English translation cherubims.
https://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionaries/bakers-evangelical-dictionary/armageddon.html
Compare Revelation 1:4
https://biblehub.com/text/joshua/17-11.htm
See final description of ALL sites.
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Joshua 17:11 mentions several towns within the territory of Manasseh, including Beth-shean, Ibleam, Dor, Endor, Taanach, and Megiddo, along with their surrounding settlements. These towns were located in the hill country, which was part of the land allocated to the tribe of Manasseh12.
The hill country was significant for several reasons:
Strategic Importance: The elevated terrain provided a natural defense against enemies, making it easier to protect the inhabitants1.
Resource Potential: Despite being forested and requiring clearing, the land offered potential for agriculture and settlement expansion2.
Historical Context: This area was part of the broader inheritance of the tribes of Israel as they settled in the Promised Land3.
Would you like to explore more about the historical or cultural context of this passage?
Learn more
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Tell me more about the towns mentioned in Joshua 17:11.
What other tribes received land allocations?
How did these settlements impact ancient Israelite life?
Response stopped
In the OT HAR is the hill.
So why should it be a NAME in Revelation. Megiddo is the name.
JPS 2023 -
Within Issachar and Asher, Manasseh possessed Beth-shean and its dependencies, Ibleam and its dependencies, the inhabitants of Dor and its dependencies, the inhabitants of En-dor and its dependencies, the inhabitants of Taanach and its dependencies, and the inhabitants of Megiddo and its dependencies: these constituted three regions. *these constituted three regions Meaning of Heb. uncertain.
We're getting away from the main reason why I posted the information, but numerous scholars think that Harmageddon potentially means "Mount of Megiddo," but this meaning is understood figuratively. Sources note that a mount of Megiddo never existed, but Revelation apparently uses a figure of speech to describe the topos for the war of God the Almighty against the kings of earth. Due to its apocalyptic setting, it's kind of hard to read a bunch of geography into the terminology.
https://digitalcommons.andrews.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1000&context=postdoc
See page 115ff.
I don't think I am getting away from the post at all. This is someone pretending at Hebrew and Har Megiddo is not a single word and is certainly not a Hebrew name. Har can be a mountain or hill and any modern meaning/benchmark would be anachronistic to it's wide range of use. I am not even discussing whether it is refering to something symbolic or otherwise. Anyway, I'll leave it at that.
Just to clarify, when I mentioned getting away from the post, I was talking about the OP.
In fact, the very word Armageddon comes from Har Megiddo—Hebrew for the “mound” or “mountain” (har) of Megiddo. By the Middle Ages, multiple nationalities, languages, and centuries had added an n and dropped the h, transforming Har Megiddo to Harmageddon and thence to Armageddon.2
This quote is from https://press.princeton.edu/ideas/welcome-to-armageddon?srsltid=AfmBOoqPQnbNBUuCADwt0c7cYMnjEh-CWvWDivnOxSEDlDwkIf71VIpR
Then we have correspondence with Tel Megiddo.
I seem to remember a comment from Allin pertaining to the meaning of mighty god vs almighty god and one having something to do with a mountain aswell
- possible connection?
Anonymous, if you could find that statement, I'd like to see it. I searched the document by Allin, but mighty or mountain did not come up in the search results.
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