How Moses saw Jehovah's form has befuddled Jewish and "Christian" commentators. The expression is likely figurative in view of Exodus 33:19-20; Deuteronomy 4:15-16; 5:4-5; John 1:18 and 1 John 4:12. See also Exodus 24:9-11. The last Pentateuchal account likely refers to a divine vision if we examine the context--not to the act of literally seeing God.
Another way that exegetes have tried to explain accounts regarding Jehovah's form is by making some kind of distinction between God as he reveals himself to us (quoad nos) and God in his essence (quoad essentiam). Some then place the Son qua angel in the first category, but locate the tripersonal God as he exists "immanently" in the second category. However, even apart from the untenable Trinity doctrine, I wonder about the lexical basis for interpreting John 1:18 as a reference to the divine essence rather than construing the language as referentially about the Father.
It is common to say that God = the Father in John 1:1b and the Son/Logos in 1:1c; yet some like M.J.. Harris contend that "God" means the divine essence in 1:18 although the Logos/Son is called "QEOS" in 1:18 and is said to exegete (explain) the Father. Cf. 1 John 4:12.
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