I teach logic once every year, and find it a joy. For me, there is also a connection between theology and logic: when doing theology, it's so important to reason properly. Doing so entail using valid inferences.
Collins English Dictionary provides this definition: "(countable noun): An inference is a conclusion that you draw about something by using information that you already have about it."
In formal logic, one infers things from statements by moving from the premises to a conclusion. Some logicians say that people infer while statements imply things. In the statement, "If p, then q," q is an implicate of p: it is implied by p. However, not all inferences are the same. I want to focus on inferences that are valid, invalid, and others that are necessary.
Not all logicians define validity the same way, but let's assume that validity denotes "if the premises are true, then the conclusion necessarily follows from the premises." However, note the language of this denotation for validity: it's hypothetical. If the premises are true, then the conclusion necessarily follows. So, there is no guarantee that the premises are true; for all we know, they could be false. But if the conclusion does follow from the premises, we can say the inference is valid because the main concern is formality and rule-following.
As an example, take the statement, "If I live in Atlanta, then I live in the USA." Is the statement valid in the sense that we're talking about here? Yes it is because q (the second part of the utterance) naturally follows from p (the first part of the utterance). Hence, the inference is valid and the conclusion also happens to be true, which is another matter entirely. Yet it illustrates how premises force a conclusion to be valid.
Nevertheless, not all inferences are valid. Would you say that the following inference is valid?
1) If I pass all of my classes, then I will graduate.
2) I will graduate.
3) Therefore, I passed all of my classes.
The set of propositions could be formulated this way:
1) If p, then q
2) q
3) Therefore, p
This formal structure makes it clear that the inferences are not valid, but maybe another example will make this point clear.
1) If my car starts, there is enough gas in the tank.
2) There is enough gas in the tank.
3) Therefore, my car starts.
One cannot rightly infer that just because a car's gas tank is full that the car will start: the starter might not work or the battery could be dead. The inferences are fallacious, the conclusion does not necessarily follow from the premises, and the argument is invalid. Hence, all inferences are not equal.
One final thing to consider here: whether an inference is necessary or not. By "necessary," I mean that the premises must entail the conclusion. One cannot accept the premises of an argument, but reject the conclusion, if the premises force the conclusion to be true. For example:
1) If Sam is a bachelor, then he is unmarried.
2) If Sam is unmarried, then he does not have a wife.
3) Therefore, if Sam is a bachelor, then he does not have a wife.
It should be clear that one cannot accept the premises of the argument and reject the conclusion. The premises force the argument's conclusion, so the inferences are necessarily drawn from the premises, and the argument is valid according to the canons of formal logic. Yet we have seen that not all inferences are valid or necessary. Try to avoid those inferences that are not valid.
Sporadic theological and historical musings by Edgar Foster (Ph.D. in Theology and Religious Studies and one of Jehovah's Witnesses).
Sunday, December 11, 2022
Valid and Necessary Inferences (Logic)
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
29 comments:
If the only true God is triune,
And if Jesus Christ is not triune,
Then Jesus Christ is not the only true God.
Conversely,if the God and Father of Jesus Christ is the only true God,
And if the God and Father of Jesus Christ is not triune,
Then the only true God is not triune.
I think both arguments are valid, but the Trinitarian (as you probably know) will question their soundness (i.e., their truth-preserving status/function)
Soundness is much harder to eatablish than validity, which is why discussions are largely interminable.
@E.Foster:Usually my learned trinitarian interlocutor would take issue with my premises,suggesting that while they were not untrue they did not state the whole truth and were thus misleading in some way.And the remainder of the discussion would center on trying to nail down just what relevant facts if included in my premise(s)would lead to a trinitarian conclusion.
How much of worldview is logic? Paradox is also in the belief of Hell. God is love but can torture eternally.
@aservant: as we've discussed, Trinitarian interlocutors will usually approach problems concerning the Trinity differently. I can see a Trinitarian doing what you mention, but your argument as it stands is certainly valid in a formal sense. They will have to pick on some other aspect of it, but once you do that, you will not have the same argument.
One thing I see a Trinitarian might pick on, is limiting "the only true God" to one person/being. Rob Bowman says all three persons of the Trinity are the only true God. But the very use of a plural verb for one God causes much discussion.
Duncan, I find that most of us (myself included) often do or believe illogical things. If not for being taught, hell probably would not have seemed illogical to me. And when I show students an argument that is "logical," many often consider it to be illogical.
However, regarding hell, one of the favorite responses from young people who've been taught this stuff is that "you can't put God in a box."
@aservant:
As I think about your first example a little more, potential objections come to mind. Let me just volley this one. A Trinitarian might say that God is triune by means of relations, so naturally each person will not be triune because God is only triune in virtue of how one divine person relates to another. For instance, the Father is Father because he eternally begets the Son but the Father's relation is that he's innascible. So triunity does not describe a property of each person but how the persons relate to one another although any one of the persons may be called, "the only true God."
My contention is not over what makes the only true God triune. But on whether someone who is not triune can be the only true God. if granted that the ONLY true God is triune. Thus if both parties agree that the Only true God is triune,and both parties grant that Jesus is not triune then what constitutes triunity seems like a moot point re:whether someone who by common consent is not triune can be the only true God who by common consent must be triune
That would be missing the point wouldn't it? if both parties grant that the only true God is triune and that Jesus Christ is not triune. the nuts and bolts of triunity seem irrelevant re: whether someone who is not triune can qualify as only true God if triunity is a necessary qualification for supremacy.That's the thing about this argument it is not strictly speaking an argument against the trinity.
The second proposition is to my mind even stronger if both parties agree that the God and Father of Jesus Christ is the only true God and that the God and Father of Jesus is not triune. For one party to deny that the only true God cannot be triune seems utterly irrational,i.e if the phrase "the only true God" is not to be stripped of all explanatory content.
I guess what I'm saying is that Trinitarians clearly believe and would grant that no one person of the triune "Godhead" is triune, but I don't think you'll ever get an ardent Trinitarian to concede that the Trinity is false/wrong for that reason. I mentioned the relations view because they might use it, to explain why the only true God is/must be triune but no one person of God is/must be triune.
I'm not saying this view is correct, but I can see how in principle that a person could reject the view that Jesus or any other person of the Trinity is triune and still hold to the view that the only true God is triune since triunity depends on other factors, as they see matters. In other words, just because the USA is the richest country in the world doesn't mean that every member of the country is rich. The so-called fallacy of division. Another example could be where consciousness is caused by non-conscious parts.
I'm trying to put myself in the shoes of Trinitarians, which is not easy, but it just seems to me that a person can consistently believe triunity "is a necessary qualification for supremacy" on the ontological level without thinking it's required of each person, who is supposed to be the only true God. Now I'm going to refrain from trying to explain how the triune Godhead can be "the only true God," but so can each person. I understand the explanstions I've been given before, but I find it nonsensical that more than one person can be the only true God.
One other thing occurred to me after I sent the last comment, a Trinitarian could say that triunity is a necessary condition for being God, but it's not sufficient. Besides being triune, God must have other attributes. To illustrate, in order for someone to be human, he or she must have a body. However, having a body might be a necessary condition for being human, but it's not a sufficient condition. Okay, I'm going to eat now :-)
See https://afkimel.wordpress.com/2013/12/31/john-behr-on-the-trinity/
If you carefully examine my approach you will see that strictly speaking I am not disputing whether the only true God is triune but whether it is logically consistent to then claim that Jesus Christ is the only true God if we grant that Jesus Christ is not triune? So it's not me against the trinity it's the trinity against the supremacy(as defined by the dictionary) or aJesus Christ.
If being triune is necessary to being God then the one who does not possess this necessary trait is most certainly not God.Just as the one who does not possess a body is most certainly not human granted that possessing a physical body is a necessary trait of humans.
Regarding your second proposition, it seems like a Trinitarian can either a) identify the Father as the only true God, then connect the other persons with him, which is what John Behr does or b) a Trinitarian can concede that the Father is the only true God, but then argue that so is the Son and the Holy Spirit, which is what Bowman does. I'm not saying that either move is consistent, but I've seen both moves.
I get what you're saying, and it would be interesting to see actual replies to you from Trinitarians. But I envision them arguing that while God is triune (i.e., three persons), no one divine person is triune. If God = three persons, then no one divine person can be the Trinity.
Maybe a Trinitarian could explain it better and try to justify his position, but if God is tripersonal, then how could any one divine person be triune, which means being three persons (tripersonal)? That would be incoherent. However, I have seen Trinitarians contend that the three persons are "virtually identical" to the triune Godhead or the three persons are the triune relations, etc. Virtual distinction is one of those medieval concepts, but however Trinitarians handle this issue, it cannot be said that any one person of the Trinity is absolutely identical with the tripersonal God in a Leibnitzian sense.
I just did some brief reading in the Trinitarian literature tonight, and there is no one unified response to the issue raised by aservantofJehovah. As a matter of fact, Joshua Sijuwade will try to address this question in a future writing.
One possible response might be 1) A triangle is a three-sided polygon; 2) No angle is a three-sided polygon; 3) Therefore, no angle is a triangle.
Okay, this is true, and the argument is valid, but there would be no triangle if there were no angles. In a sense, the angles are distinct from triangles, but in another sense, could one argue that they're identical? Or maybe the angles just constitute triangles without being identical with them. As I said earlier, they're certainly not identical in a Leibnitzian sense.
Here is(I hope)a simplified restatement of my first polemic.
The ONLY true God is triune,
Therefore anyone who is not triune is not the only true God.
So the proposal is not an attempted falsification of the trinity per se,I am giving trinitarians their cake so to speak,I am simply saying you can eat your cake now or you can save it for later but you can't have it both ways.
Here is(I hope) a simplified version if my second polemic.
If the God and Father of Jesus Christ is the ONLY true God,
Then anyone who is not the God and Father of Jesus Christ is not the only true God.
Thus as with my first contention,you can eat your cake now or you can save it for later but you most certainly cannot have it both ways.
Let's try a third.
If the the God and Father of Jesus Christ is a Lord,
and Jesus Christ is a Lord,but
the God and Father of Jesus Christ is not identical to Jesus Christ,then Jesus Christ and his God and Father are not the same Lord.
Note please that this is not ,at its core, an attempted falsification of the trinity per se so any rush to defend the trinity as a concept would be missing the point.
1) What response have you gotten from reasoning with Trinitarians in this way?
2) The most common view in Christendom is that the triune God is the only true God. However, as demonstrated on Al Kimel's blog, some Trinitarians argue that the Father is the only true God but the Son and the Holy Spirit are also fully divine. Therefore, a person seems to have a choice: either identify the Trinity as the only true God and try to defend the non-triunity of the persons or identify the Father as the only true God, then make the other two persons divine by their relations with the Father. Both things have been/are being attempted.
3) As for your third version, someone might pick at the language about identity. To challenge an argument, one might question the premises, produce counterexamples or critique terms/language used in the argument.
Attacking the premises is pretty much go to in all three cases.
Once the premises are allowed to stand the conclusions seem inescapable.
One thing I have to give my trinitarian interlocutors is that they may be weak on logic but they are very imaginative. E.g a few insists that while God is triune he can ALSO be considered Unitarian in some sense. Thus I'm needlessly creating an either or paradigm.
How might you respond to something like that
I'm not sure what your interlocutors mean by God being triune in one sense and "Unitarian" in another. That could mean more than one thing, but creating an either/or argument is fair game. Things only become problematic from the standpoint of formal logic, when the false dilemma fallacy occurs. But that is not a formal but an informal fallacy.
However, it's hard to offer a reply to such a claim as God is true and Unitarian. I understand the "in a sense" type of thinking. They do the same thing with Christ as the God-man.
Your point about the either/or type proposition being fair is well said they try to do it to us "if Jesus is a God is he a true God or a false God" and we actually have grounds for claiming a false dichotomy.
Either p or q is a logical rule of inference, so that is why I say either/or arguments are fair game, even if they're limited. The problem comes with false dilemmas/dichotomies where another alternative besides p or q is vaiable, but someone like the Trinitarians attempts to corner his or her opponent with only two choices. To borrow from a hackneyed example, "Have you stopped beating your cat yet? Answer either yes or no."
Btw, a question is not an argument, as I'm sure you're aware, but queries can have great rhetorical effect.
Gary Kasporov,considered one of chess'all time greats,opined that a player ought not to merely think of what is good for his own game but also of what is bad for his opponent's game. An intelligently conducted cross examination can be quite helpful in exposing the flaws in an opponent's position.
Agree 100% my friend.
Post a Comment