The answer is complicated.
See https://www.biblegateway.com/resources/encyclopedia-of-the-bible/Quotations-NT
https://repository.westernsem.edu/pkp/index.php/rr/article/download/233/245
http://paulhelmsdeep.blogspot.com/2014/02/ecclesiastes-and-new-testament.html
https://digitalcommons.liberty.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1060&context=second_person
Sunday, March 17, 2024
Do Writers of the Christian-Greek Scriptures (NT) Quote the Hebrew Bible Verbatim?
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5 comments:
https://www.scripturecatholic.com/septuagint-quotes-new-testament/
http://www.kalvesmaki.com/LXX/NTChart.htm
What are your thoughts on Hebrews 7:1-3 where the statement in vv.3 says, "without beginning of days" what does that entail? Especially after Trinitarians made this refer to Jesus.
JLM, I agree basically with what Meyer writes here: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/hebrews/7-3.htm
Strictly sppeaking, the words at 7:3 apply to Melchiedek and only secondarily to Jesus, who is a king-priest in the manner of Melchizedek. People read way too much into the text while ignoring the word ἀγενεαλόγητος
They seem to quote the LXX verbatim
JLM,
Ken Schenck offers a very thoughtful interpretation of the application of Melchizedek language to Jesus. I don't have time to re-read it and type it out here, but the entire book is worth adding to your library, which is:
A New Perspective on Hebrews: Rethinking the Parting of the Ways
https://rowman.com/ISBN/9781978706439/A-New-Perspective-on-Hebrews-Rethinking-the-Parting-of-the-Ways
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