"Philology" by James Turner (Initial Comments)

James Turner has written a work that's informative, dense, comprehensive and sometimes pleasurable. It is Philology: The Forgotten Origins of the Modern Humanities (Princeton and Oxford: Princeton University Press, 2014). A friend gifted me a copy: I will ever be indebted to him. Turner's book not only illuminates the work of philology and how the humanities developed, but it also contains material that should interest students of the Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek Bible.

What is philology? How should the term be defined? One philologist told me (quoting another source) that philology is the art of reading slowly. Turner says philology covers three distinct modes of research: 1) textual philology; 2) theories of the origin and nature of language; 3) comparative language studies and how they developed including their respective language families. Examples include classical and biblical studies, studies of Sanskrit literature, and etymological or dialectal analyses. By means of such investigations, Proto-Indo-European was discovered.

Turner emphasizes that philology is inherently historical and comparative: all philological approaches use historical methods and they compare texts in the light of other texts and contexts. So, for instance, philologists examine Greek literature through the prism of Sanskrit texts or other Indo-European languages. They believe that Greek texts can only be understood or illuminated by this kind of historical and comparative approach. A.T. Robertson insists: "there is no doubt about DIA being kin to DUO, DIS. (cf. Sanskrit DVIS, Greek DIS, b = v or U); German ZWEI; English two (fem. and neut.), twain (masc.), twi-ce, twi-light, be-tween, two-fold, etc." See A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, page 580. Similarly, for Hebrew-Aramaic, a number of Semitic languages are consulted in order to shed light on biblical texts. All such work is part of the philological task.

Since reading Turner's research, I have started wondering exactly what philology is. While the word itself (according to its components) means "love of words" or "love of learning," the term has come to signify something deeper. There is no one universal definition of philology, but a consensus seems to have developed that the object of knowledge in philological studies is language/languages--"the branch of knowledge that deals with the structure, historical development, and relationships of a language or languages" (Oxford dictionaries). Apparently, North Americans understand the task of philology to be the study of literary or classical texts while using the aforementioned historical or comparative methods. I notice that one can still earn a Ph.D. in classical philology from Harvard.

In the coming months, I want to discuss specific contents from Turner's study. For now, I will just say one thing that caught my attention while reading this book was the preoccupation with textual criticism that philologists have. In other words, they want to establish the original reading of a text. Furthermore, something distinguishes philologists from linguists. Exactly what are the criteria that make one a linguist rather than a philologist?

See https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B9uUcckQ_nRieW5ZaVI3Zk53eGc/view

Lucian of Antioch and Arianism (Duchesne)

"Lucian of Antioch was a really learned man; his work on the text of the Old Testament, which he corrected from the original Hebrew, soon became famous; he was a Hebrew scholar, and his version was adopted by the greater number of churches of Syria and Asia Minor. He occupied himself also with the New Testament.

His exegesis differed widely from Origen's. In Antioch, allegorical interpretation was not in fashion; the text was by way of being interpreted literally. The theological trend of this school is shown by the well-established fact that Lucian was the originator of the doctrine, which soon became so famous as Arianism. Around him were grouped, even as early as this time we now speak of, the future leaders of this heresy, amongst others Arius himself, Eusebius, the future Bishop of Nicomedia, Maris, and Theognis. It was, they found, necessary to abandon the theories of Paul, and to admit the personal pre-existence of Christ, in other words the Incarnation of the Word. But they granted as little as possible. The Word, according to the new doctrine, was a celestial being, anterior to all visible and invisible creatures; He had indeed created them. But He had not existed from all eternity; He was created by the Father, as an instrument for the subsequent creation. Before that He did not exist. He was called out of nothing."-Louis Duchesne, Early History of the Christian Church: From its Foundation to the End of the Fifth Century (Volume I)p. 362.

A blog reader, friend, and brother contributed this material. My thanks to him.

Quick Note on F.F. Bruce and 1st Century CE Corinth

I am trying to finish New Testament History by F.F. Bruce. On pp. 314-315, Bruce reviews the history of Corinth, then he mentions that after the city was restored, it became economically prosperous once again, but also started practicing immorality as evidenced by the temple of Aphrodite. The temple sanctioned a Hellenized version of "the Syrian cult of Astarte." However, while immorality existed in 1st century Corinth (compare 1 Cor. 7:1-5), Bruce remarks that a synagogue also was there--a place that contrasted sharply with Aphrodite's temple.

Eikon in Colossians 1:15 (Christ)

The Image of God: Christ in Colossians 1:15

ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου, πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως

What does the clause ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου mean (Colossians 1:15)? When the Apostle Paul speaks of Christ as the "image of the invisible God," what does he have in mind? Is the clause proof for the full deity of Jesus Christ? Admittedly, exegetes part ways in their understanding of εἰκὼν and its semantic relationship to the Son of God. Some commentators see in this Greek word, unequivocal proof that God's Son is ontologically equal to his Father. For example, Ralph Earle insists that εἰκὼν means a "likeness"--it is not, however, an accidental similarity (per accidens), but a derived similitude that apparently occurs by means of divine generation. Earle also quotes Thayer's Lexicon which avers that Christ is the εἰκὼν of the invisible God: "on account of his divine nature and absolute moral excellence" (Earle 349). Biblically, this word is likewise implemented to describe the Roman emperor's image on a silver coin, and the relation of humanity to God (Matthew 22:20; 1 Corinthians 11:7ff). Nevertheless, numerous scholars continue to view εἰκὼν as a delineation of Christ's pantocratic nature, thereby making the Son of God ontologically equal to his Father. By ontological equality, they mean that the Son of God is equal to his Father with respect to being or ontos, but the Son is not hypostatically identical to his Father. Ronald cox explains: "The uses of image (eikon) in the New Testament and contemporaneous literature evoke more than a visible depiction, suggesting something substantive, like a divine stamp which impresses God'’s influence. It is a hefty metaphysical term that tells us the Son mediates God’'s presence." ("Why it all Matters: Appreciating the Universal Scope of Colossians 1.15-20," Leaven: Vol. 21: Iss. 3, Article 5.)

B. P. Lightfoot writes that εἰκὼν involves two prominent notions: (a) it connotes an archetype of some copy; (b) the word implies the divine epiphaneia of the incarnate or preincarnate Son (Earle 349). Charles J. Ellicott buttresses Lightfoot's comments by adding: "Christian antiquity has ever regarded the expression 'image of God' as denoting the eternal Son's perfect equality with the Father in respect of His substance, nature, and eternity" (ibid.) The view of Trinitarians accordingly can be summed up in the following words: "Thus EIKWN does not imply a weakening or a feeble copy of something. It implies the illumination of its inner core and essence" (Kleinknecht qtd. in Earle 349). Trinitarian scholars generally believe the word εἰκὼν provides evidence that Christ is one in nature with the Father and the Holy Spirit: this Greek word allegedly strengthens the doctrine that God's Son is homoousios to patri although Lightfoot acknowledges that εἰκὼν in and of itself "does not necessarily imply perfect representation" (145).

How should we view the arguments made by Earle, Ellicott, and Lightfoot (et al.)? Is Christ equal to Almighty God or not? Is Colossians 1:15 strong proof of his divinity? Upon closer examination of εἰκὼν, we must question the confidence with which Trinitarians speak vis-a'-vis the language "image of the invisible God" when it's applied to the preeminent Son of Jehovah. After reviewing the lexical evidence for εἰκὼν, it can be said that there seems to be no adequate proof for this frequently asserted claim. If we examine the word in se, it is difficult to ascertain a meaning that definitively substantiates Trinitarianism simpliciter. According to BAGD [now BDAG], εἰκὼν primarily denotes "image, likeness" (222); humanity (andros) is said to be the εἰκὼν καὶ δόξα θεοῦ (1 Corinthians 11:7). Paul also (in eschatological terms) contends that Christians will one day bear φορέσομεν καὶ τὴν εἰκόνα τοῦ ἐπουρανίου (1 Corinthians 15:49). When citing this passage from Corinthians, BAGD/BDAG states that "the image corresponds with the original" (222). However, although being used to denote "image" or "likeness," εἰκὼν also carries the sense of "form, appearance."

Hierocles reports that Pythagoras--in the estimation of his disciples--had Θείαν εἰκόνα (the appearance of a God). Romans 1:23 likewise wields εἰκὼν in a similar manner despite referencing other things. In Romans 8:29, Paul tells the holy ones of Rome that God purposes to shape them in the εἰκὼν of His beloved Son: συμμόρφους τῆς εἰκόνος τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ. But not only are Christians to enjoy heavenly existence in the Son's likeness, anointed Christians correspondingly are being progressively changed into the εἰκὼν of the Father (2 Corinthians 3:18).

At the culmination of this age, these followers of Christ will see God and be made like unto Him (1 John 3:1-2). This crowning moment signals that the "divine nature" (2 Peter 1:4) will be appropriated by spirit-begotten children of God in order that men and women might become like the Father (Clement of Alexandria). With these uses of εἰκὼν in mind, it is difficult to see how the term when applied to Jesus Christ, can denote that the Son of God is homoousios to patri. Yet there is one more area that needs to be investigated.

Philo of Alexandria is known for using "image" in his writings. Martin Hengel discusses this philosopher in the book, The Son of God: The Origin of Christology and the History of Jewish-Hellenistic Religion. According to Philo, the Platonic realm of transcendent Forms (Ideas) is God's "eldest and firstborn son." That realm is synonymous with the divine Logos (God's reason that exists immanently within the cosmos). For Philo, the Logos is the "mediator between the eternal Godhead and the created, visible world." At the same time, the Logos is also "God's image" (εἰκὼν): Philo is never quite clear about what he perceives the Logos to be. In varying delineations, he calls the εἰκὼν of God, the sinless mediator, the spiritual primal man, the spokesman, the archangel, and the second god (deuteros theos). This deuteros theos is neither created nor uncreated--yet Philo does not necessarily equate the εἰκὼν of God with God (52). This claim is substantiated by referencing Somn. I, 157, 228-230.

In this portion of his famous work, the Alexandrian refers to the εἰκὼν of God as both kurios and archangel. This point is significant because it is here that he distinguishes the Logos from the Father who brings forth the Logos. The Father is ho theos, but the εἰκὼν can only be considered theos (without the article). This indicates that Philo viewed the Logos as mediator of creation and a secondary god, inferior to the Father of Israel (Isaiah 64:8). This philosophical detour alerts us to the fact that εἰκὼν when used by Philo may not mean that Logos qua εἰκὼν is to be equated fully with its prototype. The sun's reflection in the water is not the same as the actual sun: it does not possess the same nature that the sun does, being only a reflection of the thing itself. Similarly, Jesus as the εἰκὼν of God, does not possess the substance of the Father, but is homoiousios with him. One day anointed Christians will enjoy this same privilege, to a lesser degree of course, when they experience life in the εἰκὼν of the Son--being made like unto his image and that of his Father's (Revelation 22:1-5).

Uses of Katoikei in the GNT

There are 7 occurrences of κατοικεῖ in the GNT:

1. Matthew 12:45-τότε πορεύεται καὶ παραλαμβάνει μεθ' ἑαυτοῦ ἑπτὰ ἕτερα πνεύματα πονηρότερα ἑαυτοῦ, καὶ εἰσελθόντα κατοικεῖ ἐκεῖ· καὶ γίνεται τὰ ἔσχατα τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐκείνου χείρονα τῶν πρώτων. Οὕτως ἔσται καὶ τῇ γενεᾷ ταύτῃ τῇ πονηρᾷ.

2. Luke 11:26-τότε πορεύεται καὶ παραλαμβάνει ἕτερα πνεύματα πονηρότερα ἑαυτοῦ ἑπτά, καὶ εἰσελθόντα κατοικεῖ ἐκεῖ, καὶ γίνεται τὰ ἔσχατα τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐκείνου χείρονα τῶν πρώτων.

3. Acts 7:48-ἀλλ' οὐχ ὁ ὕψιστος ἐν χειροποιήτοις κατοικεῖ· καθὼς ὁ προφήτης λέγει

4. Acts 17:24-ὁ θεὸς ὁ ποιήσας τὸν κόσμον καὶ πάντα τὰ ἐν αὐτῷ, οὗτος οὐρανοῦ καὶ γῆς ὑπάρχων κύριος οὐκ ἐν χειροποιήτοις ναοῖς κατοικεῖ

5. Colossians 2:9-ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ κατοικεῖ πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος σωματικῶς,

Comment: Murray J. Harris thinks κατοικεῖ in this verse is a "timeless present," hence the verb is supposed to denote "permanently dwells" or "continues to live." So Harris reasons that the Godhead permanently dwells in Christ bodily, that is, he continues to be enfleshed forever and fully divine. See Prepositions and Theology in the Greek New Testament.

Barth L. Campbell offers this explanation for 2:9: "The verb 'dwells' (κατοικεῖ) is a metaphor that suggests the residence of the Shekinah in the tabernacle of the OT. The fullness of deity has its 'permanent' or 'fixed abode'39 in bodily form."

See http://rhetjournal.net/RhetJournal/Articles_files/Campbell.pdf

6. 2 Peter 3:13-καινοὺς δὲ οὐρανοὺς καὶ γῆν καινὴν κατὰ τὸ ἐπάγγελμα αὐτοῦ προσδοκῶμεν, ἐν οἷς δικαιοσύνη κατοικεῖ.

7. Revelation 2:13-Οἶδα ποῦ κατοικεῖς, ὅπου ὁ θρόνος τοῦ Σατανᾶ, καὶ κρατεῖς τὸ ὄνομά μου, καὶ οὐκ ἠρνήσω τὴν πίστιν μου καὶ ἐν ταῖς ἡμέραις Ἀντίπας, ὁ μάρτυς μου, ὁ πιστός μου, ὃς ἀπεκτάνθη παρ' ὑμῖν, ὅπου ὁ Σατανᾶς κατοικεῖ.

Psalm 103:20 (102:20 LXX) and 2 Peter 2:11

εὐλογεῖτε τὸν κύριον πάντες οἱ ἄγγελοι αὐτοῦ δυνατοὶ ἰσχύι ποιοῦντες τὸν λόγον αὐτοῦ τοῦ ἀκοῦσαι τῆς φωνῆς τῶν λόγων αὐτοῦ (Psalm 103:20 LXX/OG)

"Bless the Lord, all ye his angels, mighty in strength, who perform his bidding, [ready] to hearken to the voice of his words." (Brenton LXX)

ὅπου ἄγγελοι ἰσχύϊ καὶ δυνάμει μείζονες ὄντες οὐ φέρουσιν κατ' αὐτῶν παρὰ Κυρίῳ βλάσφημον κρίσιν. (2 Peter 2:11 WH)

ἰσχύϊ is dative feminine singular; μείζονες is a comparative adjective that's nominative masculine plural.

οἱ ἄγγελοι are messengers (although ἄγγελοι is anarthrous in 2 Peter), but they clearly seem to be spirit creatures in this case. See 2 Kings 18:35.

Longman, Garland, and the Present Subjunctive in John 17:3

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Colossians 1:16-17--Passive Verbs and the Non-Use of hUPO

Paul uses ἐκτίσθη and ἔκτισται (perfect passive indicative) in Colossians 1:16, and moreover, he employs the prepositions εἰς, διά and ἐν + dative of person (possibly)--but Paul does not use ἐκ as he clearly does when referring to the Father in 1 Corinthians 8:6.

Petr Pokorny also documents what he calls "the accumulation of prepositions" (an apparent Hellenistic device) and observes that the writer of Colossians uses this technique in order to show that God is the Creator, but Jesus Christ "represents" God's creation:

"Since God the Father is the initiator of creation, the preposition 'from' is not used here. Otherwise it is difficult to distinguish the functions of the various prepositions from one another. They, as a whole, are to have a cumulative effect. 'In' (instrumental ἐν) and 'through' mean almost the same thing; only the phrase 'for him' is capable of pointing to the eschatological goal of creation (Cf Rom 11:36)."

Quoted from Pokorny, Petr. Colossians: A Commentary. Peabody, 1991, pp. 78-79.

While some might look to Romans 11:36 as a proof-text which demonstrates ἐκ being applied to the "triune" God, the application of ἐκ to the Father only with respect to creation indicates that this Greek preposition is not being applied to the Son in 11:36.

From Robertson's Word Pictures in the NT:

Of him (ex autou), through him (di autou), unto him (ei auton). By these three prepositions Paul ascribes the universe (ta panta) with all the phenomena concerning creation, redemption, providence to God as the Source (ex), the Agent (di), the Goal (ei). For ever (ei tou aiwna). "For the ages." Alford terms this doxology in verses Romans 33-36 "the sublimest apostrophe existing even in the pages of inspiration itself."

Another quote that has a bearing on our understanding of Colossians 1:15-17 is taken from Emil Brunner's Dogmatics (Volume I:308):

"In this connexion the truth which we have already seen acquires new significance, that the world, it is true, was created THROUGH--διά--the Son, but not BY--ὑπό--the Son, that it has been created IN Him and UNTO Him, but that He Himself is never called the Creator. It has pleased God the Creator to create the world in the Son, through the Son, and unto the Son. The fact that between the Creator and the Creation there stands the Mediator of creation means that the world is an act of the freedom of God, that it does not proceed from the Logos."

While Brunner thinks that the Son of God is "eternal," he does not believe that the Son is ever called Creator in Scripture: the Logos is the mediate agent of creation and the one through whom God brings forth the KOSMOS. But the Son is never called Creator in Scripture. Not only does the apostle Paul describe the role of the LOGOS in passive verbal terms at Col 1:15-17, but the envoy of Christ who penned Colossians missive refuses to employ ὑπό (hUPO) to delineate the role of the LOGOS vis-à-vis creation.

Brunner insists hUPO shows us that Christ is not being identified as the Creator by the apostle in Colossians 1:15-17, and I would submit that researching Greek literature will support his point. If Paul had wanted to call Jesus the Creator in Colossians, he could and likely would have used hUPO instead of διά or ἐν.

John F. Walvoord on Revelation 19:6-8

Walvoord writes:

19:5-6 And a voice came out of the throne, saying, Praise our God, all ye his servants, and ye that fear him, both small and great. And I heard as it were the voice of many waters, and as the voice of mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth.

Joining the praise of the tribulation saints, the twenty-four elders, and the four beasts, a voice is now heard coming out of the throne calling upon the servants of God to praise the Lord. It is probable that this is a voice of an angel rather than the voice of God or the voice of the saints. The occasion for the praise of God is His judgment against wicked men who have oppressed the people of God. The expression "his servants" does not refer to a particular group such as the tribulation saints, as J. B. Smith suggests, but rather as the passage itself says, to "all ye his servants." In other words, this is an occasion for every true servant of God to praise the Lord. The following expression, "ye that fear him, both small and great," is another descriptive phrase applying to the same group. This seems to be supported by the Greek text which links the phrases in apposition without a connective "and" as in the Authorized Version. Hence it reads, "Keep on praising our God, all his servants who fear him, small and great." The verb "praise" is in the present tense and is therefore a command to "keep on praising" the Lord.

In antiphonal response to this call to praise, John hears the voice of the great multitude, that is, the same as in verse 1, accompanied by the majestic sound of many waters and mighty thunderings, saying for the fourth time in this passage, "Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth."

See http://bible.org/seriespage/19-second-coming-christ

J.F. Rutherford Book "Life" in Greek (For Sale)

I hardly ever mention anything commercial on this blog, and would like to keep things that way. However, while going through my library, I have made the decision to sell some of my books. For one book--I want to bypass Ebay/Amazon and see if there's interest from any blog reader.

The book is "Life" by J.F. Rutherford. It is written in Greek and the publishing date is 1929. I will sell this book on a first come basis. I am asking $10.00 or best offer + shipping costs. I am limiting shipping to domestic only. Please let me know within the next week if you have an interest.

The book's condition is acceptable.

Lastly, I would ask that you contact me by email at edgarfoster2003 at yahoo.com

Thanks,

Edgar

The Grammatical Subject of Philippians 1:21

Ἐμοὶ γὰρ τὸ ζῆν Χριστὸς καὶ τὸ ἀποθανεῖν κέρδος. (Philippians 1:21)

A question that arises from reading this scripture: is the grammatical subject τὸ ζῆν or Χριστὸς? Max Zerwick (Biblical Greek Illustrated by Examples) explains that either term could be the subject, but he favors τὸ ζῆν in this context, and I agree. But others say that Χριστὸς is the subject, even though it lacks the article. While I think the reasoning is wrong--Χριστὸς is not the subject, but rather, it is the predicate--I emphasize that Χριστὸς could be the subject as Zerwick states and it does not have an article.

24 Elders Cast Their Crowns? (Revelation 4:10)

πεσοῦνται οἱ εἴκοσι τέσσαρες πρεσβύτεροι ἐνώπιον τοῦ καθημένου ἐπὶ τοῦ θρόνου, καὶ προσκυνήσουσιν τῷ ζῶντι εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων, καὶ βαλοῦσιν τοὺς στεφάνους αὐτῶν ἐνώπιον τοῦ θρόνου, λέγοντες (WH)

πεσοῦνται οἱ εἴκοσι τέσσαρες πρεσβύτεροι ἐνώπιον τοῦ καθημένου ἐπὶ τοῦ θρόνου καὶ προσκυνήσουσιν τῷ ζῶντι εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων καὶ βαλοῦσιν τοὺς στεφάνους αὐτῶν ἐνώπιον τοῦ θρόνου λέγοντες· (NA28)

"the twenty-four elders throw themselves to the ground before the one who sits on the throne and worship the one who lives forever and ever, and they offer their crowns before his throne, saying:" (NET Bible)

"The four and twenty elders fall down before him that sat on the throne, and worship him that liveth for ever and ever, and cast their crowns before the throne, saying," (KJV)

"the 24 elders fall down before the One seated on the throne and worship the One who lives forever and ever, and they cast their crowns before the throne, saying:" (NWT 2013)

So a question I have is how should βαλοῦσιν be understood--the verb is future active indicative 3rd-person plural of βάλλω (I throw, put, cast, hurl).

See Revelation 12:9.

See http://www.laparola.net/greco/parola.php?p=%CE%B2%E1%BD%B1%CE%BB%CE%BB%CF%89

Romans 1:17 and Double Prepositional Phrases

The double prepositional phrase in Romans 1:17 is somewhat problematic and ultimately context determines how one should understand the grammatical construction there. I notice that NWT 2013 renders the passage:

"For in it God’s righteousness is being revealed by faith and for faith, just as it is written: 'But the righteous one will live by reason of faith.' ”

NWT inserts "and" to help us make sense of the double prepositional phrase: it renders the genitive ἐκ πίστεως as "by faith" and the accusative εἰς πίστιν with the words "for faith" thereby drawing a contrast between the two prepositions ἐκ and εἰς. RSV handles the phrase by using "through" and "for" in its rendering: '"For in it the righteousness of God is revealed through faith for faith; as it is written, "He who through faith is righteous shall live."'

Rogers and Rogers say that the preposition ἐκ in Romans 1:17: "may indicate the source of righteousness" (The New Linguistic and Exegetical Key, p. 316). Another important point to consider is that ἐν αὐτῷ ("in it" NWT) probably refers to the Gospel mentioned in the preceding verse. If that is the case and the prepositional phrase ἐν αὐτῷ were construed as an independent construction, it would lend credence to the NIV rendering:

'"For in the gospel a righteousness from God is revealed, a righteousness that is by faith from first to last, just as it is written: "The righteous will live by faith."'

Robert Mounce (Romans, NA Commentary Series): "The Greek 'out of faith into faith' has been taken in many ways: 'from the faith of the OT to the faith of the NT,' 'from God's faithfulness to man's faith,' 'from one degree of faith to another,' and so on. Most probably it points to faith as the origin of righteousness and the direction in which it leads."

Richard A. Young thinks that ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν "is best explained as means that is perhaps intensified by the addition of the second phrase (by faith and faith alone)." See his work Intermediate NT Greek, p. 95.

However, I don't think Young's view is tenable. For other suggestions, see https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/full/10.1177/2051677020983500

Anthony Thiselton's "Semantics and New Testament Interpretation" (Link and Screenshots)

Anthony Thiselton gives numerous exegetical warnings in this article. I've included a couple of screenshots to give you some idea of the argument he is trying to make.

See https://biblicalstudies.org.uk/pdf/nt-interpretation/nti_04.pdf

Epiklesis and Theosis: Eastern Theology

One helpful book on the Eastern Church (particularly Eastern Pneumatology) is Stanley M. Burgess' The Holy Spirit: Eastern Christian Traditions published by Hendrickson (1989).

Burgess defines ἐπίκλησις this way:

"Invocation of the Holy Spirit. Such an invocation is common in Eastern Christian services, including during the Eucharist (or Mystery) when the Spirit is invited to make the elements into the Body and Blood of Christ. Some epikleses ask for the descent of the Holy Spirit on the people as well as on the elements. In the Egyptian Anaphora of St. Serapion, however, there is an epiklesis asking for the descent of the Logos instead of the Spirit. The epiklesis comes after the words of institution" (229).

Θέωσις (Théōsis) simply means "deification" or "becoming God-like." Burgess explains that théōsis is "the goal of the Christian life in Eastern Christianity" (232). The soteriological implications of théōsis are also worthy of consideration. Compare 1 John 3:1-2.

Written Friday, August 8, 2003 at 5:31 P.M. by Edgar Foster; slightly edited on October 14, 2013 and edited again on 12/26/14 at 11:50 P.M.

Chrys Caragounis Vs. Stanley Porter (Part VIII)-Conclusion

The conclusion of my Caragounis vs. Porter entries has been too long in coming; nevertheless, I would like to make a few remarks in closing this discussion. The comments herein pertain to Caragounis, pages 333-336.

Caragounis aims many criticisms at Porter's aspect theory including how aspect is defined. For Porter, Greek verbal aspect grammaticalizes "the author's reasoned subjective choice of conception of a process" (Caragounis, The Development of Greek and the New Testament, 333).

Porter's definition for aspect is supposed to be less than clear, it's unintelligible, recondite, opaque, and ponderous although Caragounis' main objection is likely that Porter makes aspect subjective or speaker-dependent and tenseless. Other things to observe about Porter's aspect definition is that he's one of the first theorists to define Greek aspect, he clearly distinguishes aspect from Aktionsart , and Porter bases his theory on interrelationships between divergent "tense forms" in Greek. Caragounis still does not find Porter's theory very useful.

Page 333 introduces another technical term: deixis, and Porter depends on John Lyons (a linguist) to shape his conception of deixis. Deixis itself is a hard concept to grasp at first. Moreover, linguists differentiate between person, temporal, and spatial deixis. I learned to think of deixis along the lines of indexicals or demonstrative terms. At any rate, the important consideration for now is temporal deixis.

According to Porter, temporal deixis (temporal indexicality) is indicated by a) lexical items; b) words like arti or palin; c) "anaphorical words" (e.g., near or remote demonstratives, determiners and pronominals). An example of lexical items would be the Greek word, nun.

Caragounis' dissatisfaction with Porter's employment of deixis is multifaceted. He insists that Porter does not give specific NT examples where Greek adverbs determine temporal reference for verbs. Moreover, the "lexical items" usually are missing when one examine actual cases of Greek discourse, but yet Porter still contends that the present verb form references the present "and the imperfect and aorist" point to the past (334). Hence, Caragounis writes, "The time reference seems to reside in the tense forms themselves" (Ibid.).

Do Porter's explanations suffice? Do they account for general tendencies of the Greek aorist or the present tense form? Caragounis thinks he has shown that Porter relies on anomalies, special cases and obscure explanations to make his point. He has not established that ancient Greek is solely aspectual, that is, tenseless.

Genitive of Subordination?: Question I Posed to B-Greek

Greetings B-Greekers,

Text for Revelation 1:5: καὶ ἀπὸ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ὁ μάρτυς ὁ πιστός ὁ πρωτότοκος τῶν νεκρῶν καὶ ὁ ἄρχων τῶν βασιλέων τῆς γῆς τῷ ἀγαπῶντι ἡμᾶς καὶ λύσαντι ἡμᾶς ἐκ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ἡμῶν ἐν τῷ αἵματι αὐτοῦ [KAI APO IHSOU XRISTOU hO MARTUS hO PISTOS hO PRWTOTOKOS TWN NEKRWN KAI hO ARXWN TWN BASILEWN THS GHS TWi AGAPWNTI hHMAS KAI LUSANTI hHMAS EK TWN hAMARTIWN hHMWN EN TWi hAIMATI AUTOU].

My question regards how the genitive hO PRWTOTOKOS TWN NEKRWN in this verse might be understood. Is it partitive or a genitive of subordination? Whether this grammatical construction is the former or the latter, another question that has occupied my thinking here lately is whether the so-called "genitive of subordination" is an example of a category that exemplifies the famed unnecessarily multiplied entities which Occam's Law militates against. I ask because of what Daniel B. Wallace (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, pp. 103-104) writes about the genitive of subordination in his work.

Wallace writes that the genitive of subordination "is a subset of the objective genitive, but not always." Hence, "For this reason, most likely, such a category is not to be found in standard grammars."

I have looked in other grammars to see what they might say about the genitive of subordination. I did not find a mention of this category in Robertson, nor in William D. Chamberlain's An Exegetical Grammar of the Greek New Testament. I also do not think that the category appears in Brooks and Winbery's Syntax of New Testament Greek, or in Biblical Greek by M. Zerwick or BDF. Cf. Richard A. Young, Intermediate New Testament Greek: A Linguistic and Exegetical Approach.

I guess an additional question is, when did grammarians begin to call certain genitive constructs "genitives of subordination"?

Best regards,
Edgar Foster

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Dr. Carl Conrad replied:

For my part, I think I would understand the genitive TWN NEKRWN in
this context as partitive: of those who have died, the first to come
to birth again is Jesus Christ.

As for the "genitive of subordination," it appears to be the
brainchild of Professor Wallace, perhaps "the firstborn of many
aporetic case-usages." On a more serious note: From the pages you cite
it would appear that he is concerned with the usage of the genitive to
indicate those governed by or commanded by one in a position of
authority, an ARCWN. My guess is that this is really an instance of a
genitive of comparison -- which is really a genitive of separation
(ablatival) used especially with comparative adjectives such as
KREITTWN; although ARCWN is a substantive participle, the verb ARCW
really means "have priority over" or "be in front." It is certainly
the case that verbs of command take a genitive object, and I suspect
that the category of "genitive of subordination" was created, like
some of those Aristotelian terms for virtues and vices of which he
says, "We know what the behavior is and can describe it even though we
have no word for it." I think that Professor Wallace has created a
name for a genitive usage with an expression of governance or command
that has always been there but has hitherto been nameless.

BUT: I really do NOT think the phrase PRWTOTOKOS TWN NEKRWN has a
sense of governance or command over the dead. That sounds more like
Milton's Satan: "Better to reign in Hell than serve in Heaven."

Carl W. Conrad
______________________________________________________________________________________________________

He then gave a follow-up response:

Just to follow up on what I wrote last night about this, Smyth has an
account of genitive usage with adjectives (http://tinyurl.com/dc3vb8);
to be found among them is the following:
-------
GENITIVE WITH ADJECTIVES
The genitive is used with many adjectives corresponding in derivation
or meaning to verbs taking the genitive.

The adjective often borrows the construction with the genitive from
that of the corresponding verb; but when the verb takes another case
(especially the accusative), or when there is no verb corresponding to
the adjective, the adjective may govern the genitive to express
possession, connection more or less close, or by analogy. Many of the
genitives in question may be classed as objective as well as partitive
or ablatival. Rigid distinction between the undermentioned classes
must not be insisted on.
...
Ruling (1370).—““ταύτης κύριος τῆς χώρας
[TAUTHS THS CWRAS]” master of this country” D. 3.16,
““ἀκρατὴς ὀργῆς [AKRATHS ORGHS]” unrestrained in
passion” T. 3.84. So with ἐγκρατής [EGKRATHS] master of,
αὐτοκράτωρ complete master of, ἀκράτωρ [AKRATWR]
intemperate in.
--------

I still don't think that πρωτότοκος τῶν νεκρῶν
belongs properly in this (sub)category.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

Kenneth Matthews' Commentary for Genesis 2:19ff

He discusses the potential pluperfect in Gen. 2:19 and the proper name "Adam."

Daniel B. Wallace Explains Ascensive Conjunctions

Daniel B. Wallace defines an "ascensive conjunction" this way:

"This use expresses a final addition or point of focus. It is often translated even. This classification is usually determined by the context. Conjunctions that function this way are καί, δέ, and μηδέ" (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, page 670-671). Emphases are in the original.

Two examples that Wallace gives of this usage are 1 Cor. 2:10; Eph. 5:3. Another possible example might be Gal. 6:16. As Wallace notes--context will ultimately determine whether a conjunction functions ascensively.

Note Pertaining to Greek Particles (An Edit)

Based on information written to a friend back in 2008:

There are numerous studies on Greek particles and Greek grammars normally deal with the μέν . . . δέ construction. Your question made me wonder about the number of studies out there on this kind of construction. Of course, we have the notable study by J.D. Denniston, The Greek Particles. I just checked amazon and they've got the book for about $90.00. In addition to Denniston's informative study, I found research on particles here: D Lassiter - homepages.nyu.edu

Furthermore, there are various journal articles about particles including one by Denniston. See G. Misener, "Greek Particles," The Classical Philology, 1937 and J.D. Denniston "The Greek Particles," The Classical Review, 1929.

But back to the matter at hand, μέν . . . δέ constructions can be translated "On one hand . . . on the other hand." So my remarks about your book purchases were in that vein. "On one hand (μέν), it is good that you bought the book . . . on the other hand (δέ), μέγα βιβλίον μέγα κακόν (i.e., "big book, big evil"). I'll stop while I'm ahead. :-)

Addendum: The link by Lassiter appears to have changed. And there is major work now being done concerning Greek particles. See http://chs.harvard.edu/CHS/article/display/6391

For an example of the μέν . . . δέ construction, see Ephesians 4:11.