Revelation 13:6

Rev. 13:6-καὶ ἤνοιξε τὸ στόμα αὐτοῦ εἰς βλασφημίας πρὸς τὸν θεόν, βλασφημῆσαι τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ καὶ τὴν σκηνὴν αὐτοῦ, τοὺς ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ σκηνοῦντας. (WH)

Brief Remarks: The "name" of God is blasphemed by the beast. What significance/meaning does "name" have in this verse? We also get a feel for how the verb σκηνόω can function and what the noun σκηνή may denote. See Daniel 7:25; 8:9-12; 11:36-39.

Compare Revelation 12:12 for John's utilization of σκηνόω.

The Law (NOMOS)-Old Dialogue

Written years ago, but I wanted to post here for the archives and possible discussion.

Your question occasions an interesting word study of the term normally
translated "law." The Greek word I have in mind is nomos. This
significant lingual symbol comes from nenoma (the perfect middle voice
of nemo). The Greek scholar, Zodhiates, has a fine discussion on the
semantics of the substantive nomos. I would briefly like to review
and critique some of his comments.

For starters, Zodhiates writes that nomos can refer to "a law in
general." To substantiate this view, he cites Rom. 4:15; 5:13. Both of
these Scriptures are of interest in their own way. Rom. 4:15 speaks of
ho nomos orghn katergazetai, and it is clear from the context that the
apostle has in mind "the law," not just any law. Following this
statement, he does speak of "law" in a generic sense
(anarthrous nomos), then he adds that where there is no "law"
(generically)--there is "oude parabasis." As a disclaimer, let me also
point out the fact that anarthrousness alone does not tell us whether
Paul has "the law" in mind or "a law." This will become evident below.

Based on the foregoing, one might conclude that Paul is saying there
is no "sin" where there is no _nomos_. But is this really the case?
Please note that Paul employs parabasis--not hamartia--in Rom. 4:15.
What is the distinction between the two terms? Zodhiates writes that
parabasis is a "transgression, an act which is excessive. The
parabasis as the transgression of a commandment is more serious than
hamartia." Parabasis denotes an "overstepping of God's commandments.
In the NT, it refers to "stepping on" a clearly enunciated statute of
the Divine One. Thus, Rom. 4:15 is saying: 'where there is no
explicitly stated law, there can be no overstepping of the said
statute'. Therefore, my conclusion is that Paul does not mean, without
the Mosaic Law there is no sin (hamartia). Rom. 5:13 seems to militate
against such a notion: "For until the Law sin (hamartia) was in the
world, but sin (hamartia) is not charged against anyone when there is
no law. Nevertheless, death ruled as king from Adam down to Moses,
even over those who had not sinned after the likeness of the
parabasews by Adam." In line with these thoughts, I would also like
to address 1 John 3:4 in a future post.

To sum matters up, Christians are not under the law of Moses, but this
doesn't mean there is no such thing as sin in the Christian view. In
Rom. 3:27, Paul speaks of the "law of faith." Rom. 8:2 refers to "ho
nomos tou pneumatos." James also writes about the "law of a free
people" (James 1:25; 2:8, 12). Also, we must not forget Gal. 6:2,
which tells us that we are subject to the law of Christ. I therefore
conclude that Christians are under a different law, and not without
law _in toto_. This means that we are accountable to God for all of
our actions, and it seems to cast doubt on the idea of 'once saved,
always saved'. How beautiful the refrain: "ti oun hamrthswmen hoti ouk
esmen hupo nomon alla hupo xarin mh genoito" (Rom. 6:15).

C. John Collins Discusses "in him all things hold together" (Colossians 1:17): See Link

https://www.bsw.org/biblica/vol-95-2014/colossians-1-17-hold-together-a-co-opted-term/549/article-p64.html

From my perspective, it's possible that "in him" could have the same meaning at Col. 1:16 and v. 17.

Onoma May Sometimes Mean Authority

ONOMA spoken about in Mt. 28:19 evidently does not refer to a rigid designator such as YHWH. Rather, ONOMA in this instance evidently signifies "authority":

"The name of Jesus is the essential part of it [the
Matthean formula] as is shown in the Acts. Trine
immersion is not taught as the Greek Church holds and
practices, baptism in the name of the Father, then of
the Son, then of the Holy Spirit. The use of name
(ONOMA) here is a common one in the Septuagint and the
papyri for power or authority" (Robertson's Word
Pictures).

Moulton-Milligan supplements Robertson's comments:

"The [papyrological] usage [of EIS ONOMA] is of
interest in connexion with Mt 28:19, where the meaning
would seem to be 'baptized into the possession of the
Father, etc'" (page 451).

M-M acknowledge the meaning "office" or authority for ONOMA too.

See Mt. 6:9

New Names in Scripture (Edit of Material That Originally Appeared in My Dissertation)

In the Tanakh, names are directly associated with an individual's personality or quiddity (Borchert, John 1-11, 117). Isaiah 62:2 speaks about Israel acquiring a new name. The apocalyptic NT book of Revelation also contains references to Christians being given a new name by God or Christ (Revelation 2:17; 3:12; 14:1). Ben Witherington (Revelation, 104) suggests that the "new name" which the exalted Christ mentions in Revelation 2:17 "implies a new identity and being someone special in the kingdom." Significantly, the Platonic One purportedly transcends "all being, names and knowledge" (McLelland, God the Anonymous, 10). In the renowned Athenian's grand political dialogue, we read: "The good therefore may be said to be the source not only of the intelligibility of the objects of knowledge, but also of their being and reality; yet it is not itself that reality, but is beyond it, and superior to it in dignity and power" (Republic 509b). Nevertheless, compare Symposium 211a-b.

Ephesians 4:11-16: Proleptic Application?

Some professed followers of Jesus think that Christian unity is proleptic; that is, they claim that doctrinal unity is not part of the "now," but ultimately belongs to the future "not yet." So it's believed that while Christians are not unified today, some are convinced they will be in the ESXATON. One Lutheran minister even told me that blacks and whites probably ought to have separate churches right now because racial unity in the church is proleptic, and besides, African Americans and Caucasians worship differently. Nevertheless, should we construe Eph. 4:11-16 in such a proleptic or anticipatory manner?

Possibly citing a Targumic-style rendition of Ps. 68:19, Paul applies the OT war song to the resurrected Christ while declaring that the Lord ascended on high and took some as captives, subsequently supplying gifts in men (Eph. 4:8). Who are these "gifts in men" and when would they appear?

The Apostle continues, telling us that these "gifts" (DOMATA) have already been imparted to the EKKLHSIA in the form of apostles, prophets, evangelists, shepherds and teachers. Other scriptural verses attest that God has given such men to the body of Christ (cf. 1 Cor. 12:28). But why did God bequeath these gifts to early Christian congregation? Why are these "gifts" now serving the Christian body? So that Christians may "all attain to the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to a full grown man, to the measure of the full stature of the Christ" (Eph. 4:13) When can we expect to see this unity among Christians to happen? Is it yet future? Or does God expect Christians to be unified right now?

The context suggests that God expects Christians to be united in the present (here and now). Paul exhorted the Ephesians in order that they might "use diligence to preserve the unity of the spirit by the uniting bond of peace" (Eph. 4:3). And the oneness that currently should exist is equally stressed in Eph. 4:4-6. Col. 3:15 also teaches that Christians have been called in one body--James D.G. Dunn thinks that the "body" there is primarily the local congregation in Colossae; however, he makes this additional observation when offering commentary for 3:15: "But the same applies to the church now seen as the universal body of Christ (1:18a, 24; 2:19), a oneness which is itself an effect of the peace of Christ and which can only be sustained by that peace" (page 235): Dunn likewise invokes Eph. 4:3 to this effect.

For these and other reasons, I conclude that Eph. 4:11-16 is not proleptic. The unity mentioned in the passages is taking place now.

Wrestling: Possible Influence?

ὑπελείφθη δὲ ᾿Ιακὼβ μόνος, καὶ ἐπάλαιεν ἄνθρωπος μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ ἕως πρωΐ. (Genesis 32:24/25)

ὅτι οὐκ ἔστιν ἡμῖν ἡ πάλη πρὸς αἷμα καὶ σάρκα, ἀλλὰ πρὸς τὰς ἀρχάς, πρὸς τὰς ἐξουσίας, πρὸς τοὺς κοσμοκράτορας τοῦ σκότους τούτου, πρὸς τὰ πνευματικὰ τῆς πονηρίας ἐν τοῖς ἐπουρανίοις. (Ephesians 6:11-12)

I have not read this potential comparison in any scholarly works, but someone likely has perceived a connection between these two verses. I could be off-base, but the choice of "wrestling" (ἡ πάλη) seems intentional.

John 18:39--Is the Account Historical?

"But you have a custom that I should release one man for you at the Passover. So do you want me to release to you the King of the Jews?" (John 18:39 ESV)

The New International Biblical Commentary on John by J. Ramsey Michaels provides this information:

"This policy of amnesty is mentioned also in Mark 15:6 and Matt. 27:15 (by
the respective Gospel writers rather than by Pilate), but it is not mentioned
outside the New Testament. The reason for the silence of the Jewish sources
may be that the custom prevailed for a relatively short period of time--only
during Pilate's term of office, perhaps, or (at the most) over those decades
in which insurrections were more frequent and there were more political
prisoners than before. It was probably not a Jewish custom as such, but a
Roman concession to raise public morale" (page 323).

N.T. Wright, in Jesus and the Victory of God (page 546, note 30) writes:

"This account [in Matt 27:15, etc.] has been queried as part of the
evangelists' attempt to shift blame from Pilate to the Jews, but there is at
least the strong likelihood that it is historical: see, with full details
Brown 1994, 787-820."

"Brown" above is Raymond E. Brown. His work dated 1994 is The Death of the Messiah: From Gethsemane to the Grave. A Commentary on the Passion Narratives in the Four Gospels. New York: Doubleday.

One of the best study aids that I've personally found to illuminate John 18:39 is G.R-Beasley Murray's Word Commentary about John. His observations appear on page 334 of the commentary, and Murray directs readers toward the Talmud, Pesah.91a while he briefly discusses the significance of John 18:39.

Murray also mentions the JBL article by Charles B. Chavel, "The Releasing of a Prisoner on the Eve of Passover in Ancient Jerusalem." (JBL 60 [1941] 273-78) as well as the discussions by J. Blinzler, C. K. Barrett, R. Schnackenburg, and F. F. Bruce. Check out Murray's commentary; I think you'll find it worthwhile.

What Is a Scribe? (Hurtado Link)

See https://larryhurtado.wordpress.com/2011/02/16/scribes-and-copyists/

Dunn, Colossians 1:15-20, and Hymnic Structures

James D.G. Dunn examines features that identify hymnic or poetic form in his NIGT Commentary on Colossians and Philemon. Like other commentators, Dunn proposes that the "hymn" in Colossians 1:15-20 manifestly includes poetic elements and uses exalted language about the Lord Jesus Christ. Moreover, he points to hymnic clues like the relative clause beginning with hOS, a sequence of clauses and phrases falling easily into matching "rhythmic units," and a "clear structure of two strophes (1:15-18a, 18b-20)," inter alia. See Dunn 83-85.

Bob Utley's Comments Pertaining to Hebrews 13:9-10 (Quotation)

“not by foods through which those who were so occupied were not benefitted”

This is an obvious reference to Lev. 11. The food laws had passed away in Christ (cf. Matt. 15:11; Mark 7:18-23; Acts 10; Col. 2:16-23). They were no longer binding on believers for salvation, but in a church setting, believers were still to be conscious of “weaker brothers” (cf. Rom. 14:1-15:6; I Cor. 8: 10:23-33) and to try not to offend their weak consciences.

13:10 “We have an altar”

The analogy seems to be a spiritual (heavenly) tabernacle, not a physical altar and, therefore, it refers to Jesus’ sacrificial work on behalf of believers. It is a powerful metaphor of our access to God through Christ.

See http://www.freebiblecommentary.org/pdf/VOL10.pdf

The Study of Koine Greek and Hidden Gems

When I first began to study Greek, it was with the
hope of discovering hidden gems that were supposedly located
beneath the surface of the English text. After
examining the Greek Scriptures for some time, one
discovers that "knowing" Greek helps in certain areas
of study; however, it is important to keep in mind that
a knowledge of Greek can be dangerous unless a student
continues growing in his or her knowledge of the language and
matures with respect to Koine or Attic Greek. Additionally,
a little knowledge of semantics and rhetoric will not
hurt.

I might add that the new student of NT Greek must
avoid being deceived by plausible grammatical claims
that are actually the result of exegetical razzle-dazzle.
Let's consider examples of such Hellenic noise.

Gal. 1:1 reads: PAULOS APOSTOLOS OUK AP' ANQRWPWN OUDE
DI' ANQRWPOU ALLA DIA IHSOU XRISTOU KAI QEOU PATROS
TOU EGEIRANTOS AUTON EK NEKRWN

Based on the preposition DIA governing IHSOU XRISTOU
and QEOU PATROS, Timothy George (Galatians, New
American Commentary, page 81) concludes that the
Apostle Paul wanted to make two points in 1:1:

"He was claiming that there is no distinction between
the calling of Jesus Christ and the calling of God,
and, further, he was asserting the essential and
eternal unity between the Father and the Son."

George is here following John Chrysostom's exegesis of Gal.
1:1: this post-Nicene Father avers that Paul's use
of DIA in our relevant verse demonstrates that the Son is
homoousian to patri. But can one really base this
grand ontological claim on the mere occurrence of a
preposition governing two nouns? Is this possibly a
case of reading too much into the Greek text? Maybe it
is.

Interestingly, the Expositor's Bible (Vol. 3) states
that the Greek construction crafted by Paul in
Gal. 1:1 declares: "on the one hand, the instrumentality
of the Son in the appointment of His apostle, and, on
the other, [traces] back the authority with which he
was invested to God the Father as its original source"
(page 150).

Compare Eph. 1:1

I will move on to another example.

For years, exegetes, pastors and Biblical translators
"abused" the aorist tense (morphological form) by emphasizing the
once-for-all-time understanding of the Greek tense.
D.A. Carson discusses some of these abuses and
briefly reviews the scholarship that resulted in a
demythologization of the aorist. We now know that the
AORISTOS generally delineates action as a whole and
does not necessarily portray one act for all time
over against the continuous action of the present
tense, although the present tense (imperfective
aspect) may at times depict continuous action (note
how the aorist is also used in John 3:16 where the writer
stresses the Father's love manifested in sending His
only-begotten Son for the sake of humanity). Other
factors such as context and lexis will also help us to
discern the aspect or Aktionsart of a particular verb
instead of loading a certain "tense" with a meaning
such as the one mentioned above.

Lastly, let me just encourage you to learn all that
you can about Greek morphology, syntax, aspect and
Aktionsart. Read large amounts of the Greek text and
this practice will serve to increase your familiarity with the
GNT's teachings. It is also imperative to consider textual settings:
one should read the surrounding verses in order to eludicate what
the Greek of the Bible is possibly saying.

Pneumatikos (Written to a Friend)

I remember hearing a conference paper read this year
that dealt with the modern ambiguous nature of the
term "spirituality." The study/lecture also helpfully traced
out the history of the word "spirituality" from
ancient to modern times. At any rate, everyone seems
to have a different understanding of what spirituality
is or entails.

As you know, Jehovah's Witnesses define a "spiritual
life" as a life that is God-oriented. That is, one who
is spiritual has his or her thinking and heart's
desires aligned with God's thoughts and desires (Mt
16:21-24). A spiritual person, we believe, looks at
matters from God's vantage-point (Prov 3:5-6; James
1:27). He or she detests what God abhors and loves
that which God deems righteous and worthy of
consideration.

Finally, I will just note that the Apostle Paul made a
significant contrast between one who is spiritual and
one who is carnal or fleshly. He wrote in 1 Cor
2:14-15:

"But the natural man receiveth not the things of the
Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him:
neither can he know [them], because they are
spiritually discerned. But he that is spiritual
judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no
man" (KJV).

The Greek word translated "spiritual" (PNEUMATIKOS)
can refer to one who is filled with and governed by
the holy spirit of God, say some lexicons. I think
this description aptly sums up the orientation of one
who is truly "spiritual."

How does one come to have a healthy spiritual life? In
addition to what you said about Christian gatherings,
I would say that both study of God's written word and
prayer (1 Thess 5:17) promote a sound life of
authentic spirituality. [Add the field ministry too]

As Paul told young Timothy, "You have been taught the
holy Scriptures from childhood, and they have given
you the wisdom to receive the salvation that comes by
trusting in Christ Jesus" (2 Tim 3:15 NLT).

Ave atque vale,
Edgar

1 Corinthians 10:16-18 (Revising a Past Dialogue with an Acquaintance)

βλέπετε τὸν Ἰσραὴλ κατὰ σάρκα· οὐχ οἱ ἐσθίοντες τὰς θυσίας κοινωνοὶ τοῦ θυσιαστηρίου εἰσίν (1 Corinthians 10:18 Nestle 1904)

It seems that κοινωνοὶ τοῦ θυσιαστηρίου is a genitive of association (Compare Rom. 8:17). Furthermore, the substantival phrase οἱ ἐσθίοντες is the subject here (not θυσιαστήριον). Additionally the context suggests that the eater consumes the meat, not the altar per se (1 Cor. 10:16-17). For a similar use of such altar terminology, see Heb. 13:10.

"Paul's line of reasoning was proceeding as follows. Christians who eat the bread at the Lord's Supper thereby express their solidarity with one another and with Christ. Likewise Jews who ate the meat of animals offered in the sacrifices of Judaism expressed their solidarity with one another and with God. Therefore Christians who eat the meat offered to pagan gods as part of pagan worship express their solidarity with pagans and with the pagan deities" (Dr. Thomas Constable's Expository Notes).

It seems clear that Paul's words apply to the Christian congregation; furthermore, they should be understood symbolically. In other words, those partaking of the wine in the cup and consuming the unleavened bread at the Lord's Evening Meal do not literally share a meal with God, as the doctrine of transubstantiation holds. To the contrary, those partaking on Nisan 14 profess the communion that they enjoy with God, Christ and other partakers. This meal points to the extramental Christian KOINWNIA that exists among those serving YHWH.

Translating "Lord's Day" (KURIAKHN)

"Lord's day" is a fine translation for KURIAKHN. While it is true that KURIAKOS evidently has the meaning, "that which pertains or belongs to the Lord" in 1 Cor. 11:20, it most surely is used for the "Lord's day" when John writes:

EGENOMHN EN PNEUMATI EN THi KURIAKH hMERA (Rev. 1:10).

Of course, John makes it explicit that he is referring
to the Lord's day, whereas Ignatius of Antioch simply employs
KURIAKHN, though the context and conventional usage of
KURIAKOS may point to the Greek term in this case having
reference to the Lord's day; but this does not
necessarily mean that we should construe the "Lord's
day" in Revelation as Sunday.

On the other hand, Louw-Nida states that KURIAKOS
denotes: "pertaining to the Lord" or "belonging to the
Lord, Lord's" (See semantic domain 12.10).

BDAG (under KURIAKOS) also has an interesting note
about Magnesians 9.1:

"KATA KURIAKHN ZHN observe the Lord's day (opp.
SABBATIZEIN) IMg 9:1 (on the omission of hHMERA cp.
Jer. 52:12 DEKATHi TOU MHNOS and s. AGORAIOS 2)."

I believe the note in BDAG may be helpful on this
point. M. Holmes also translates the rest of Magnesians 9:1:
"on which our life also arose through him and his
death (which some deny) . . ."

In closing, I equally found an informative note about
KURIAKOS in David Aune's commentary on Revelation 1-5
(pp. 83-84) including the papyrological employment of
the word. Aune argues that Ignatius has Sunday in mind
at Magnesians 9:1. That may be correct, even though I
don't believe John refers to Sunday in Rev. 1:10.

Jude 4 (Hans Conzelmann and KURIOS)

You may already be familiar with what Hans Conzelmann reports in An Outline of the Theology of the New Testament (Grundriss der Theologie des Nuen Testaments), but I will cite a portion of that work that discusses Jude 4:

"Thus the Christian use of KURIOS cannot be derived from the LXX. The reverse is in fact the case. Once the title began to be used, it was found again in the Bible. KURIOS is, of course, a designation for God, not among the Greeks, but in Syria, Egypt and Asia Minor."

He adds:

"On the one hand, Jesus exercises the functions of God as Lord: he rules over the world. On the other, however, he is clearly distinguished from God. The view is that God has delegated the rule of the world to Jesus for a particular time, from the exaltation to the parousia, and for a specific end, for the completion of the saving work, the subjection of the powers. Above all, 'Lord' designates Jesus as the permanent mediator of the relationship with God. So men call upon him" (page 87).

While noting that men and women call upon Jesus, Conzelmann makes it clear that the Bible does not refer to prayer when it speaks of humans calling upon Jesus:

"Calling on Jesus is to be distinguished from prayer. Only God is to be worshipped."

https://www.amazon.com/Outline-Theology-New-Testament/dp/0060615710

https://www.kirkusreviews.com/book-reviews/hans-conzelmann/an-outline-of-the-theology-of-the-new-testament/

One More Perspective on Ezekiel 1:28 (Rainbow Imagery)

Hebrews 13:9 and "Foods"

Not that I have time over the next few days to hash out this issue, but Hebrews 13:9 might have some bearing on our recent discussion concerning foods and the Mosaic Law (Torah).

"Do not be led away by diverse and strange teachings, for it is good for the heart to be strengthened by grace, not by foods, which have not benefited those devoted to them" (ESV).

Compare Heb. 13:10.

2 Corinthians 12:1-5 and the Third Heaven: Who's That Man?

While reading 2 Corinthians 12:1-5, one could possibly conclude that Paul is making a conceptual distinction between himself and the anonymous man, who beheld visions, whether in or out of the body. For he writes:

ὑπὲρ τοῦ τοιούτου καυχήσομαι, ὑπὲρ δὲ ἐμαυτοῦ οὐ καυχήσομαι εἰ μὴ ἐν ταῖς ἀσθενείαις (2 Cor. 12:5).

If the man who saw the visions is to be strictly identified with Paul in a conceptual sense, then how could he boast regarding the man without boasting about himself? If Paul is identical with the man who experienced the visions, then to speak about Paul and to speak about the man are one and the same thing.

The apostle indicates that he truly is the man (in an ontological sense) mentioned at 2 Cor. 12:2-4 by what he states in v. 7. Furthermore, it would make sense that it is Paul in view of his reason for telling this experience, to wit, the "superfine apostles" were challenging his apostolic office. Being ushered to the third heaven stamped Paul as a genuine apostle of Jesus Christ. It was therefore no surprise that he produced the signs of an apostle among the Corinthians "by all endurance, and by signs and portents and powerful works" (2 Cor. 12:12).

By using the terminology "third heaven," Paul seems to be effectively saying, "You can't top that, superfine apostles!" since the third heaven is also the locus dei et gloriae: one cannot be exalted any higher than the third heaven.

Finally, it's possible that Paul was being humble as well as employing a literary device when he prima facie created a disjunct between himself and a certain man in union with Christ. Then again, the excess of revelations did not technically happen to Paul, but to a man whom God allowed to be blessed with visionary insight; in other words, Paul the apostle was evidently placed in a trance so that the anonymous "man" of whom he spoke could behold things of which it is not lawful to utter. One could thus say the apostle was potentially "ecstatic," from the Greek εκστατικός, ἔκστασις.

Isaac Asimov, Leviticus 11:19, and Bats Qua Birds

A friend of mine recently talked with a biologist in the minstry, and one thing that grieves this person is that the Bible (KJV) classifies bats as birds. My friend and I both did research on the issue; we found some helpful information. However, I never expected to find a defense of the Bible on this score from Asimov, even though I once read part of his Bible commentary in my younger days.