A reader poses these questions. If anyone can provide some helpful input, it would be appreciated. I'll try to do the same. She writes:
Can anyone answer these questions for me please. Thanks
What was it that Jesus had said or done that caused the Pharisees to say that He was claiming to be God in John 10:33?
What was it about what Jesus said in John 8:58 that caused the Pharisees to want to kill Him?
From the New World Translation perspective, what is it about saying, "I have been" (John 8:58) that would motivate the Jews to want to kill Jesus?
Do we see any prior account of anyone in the Bible being killed for claiming to pre-exist if Jesus was merely claiming pre-existence?
Could you please explain what it was the Pharisees misunderstood and what they were misunderstanding to cause them to say what they did about Jesus' claim?
sorry for choosing anon but i do have a facebook account