Sporadic theological and historical musings by Edgar Foster (Ph.D. in Theology and Religious Studies and one of Jehovah's Witnesses).
Thanks.I think it possible that the anaphoric usage could still be likened to the way we use "this" and much is dependant on the target audience. The fact that is is missing in the epistles and revelation would fit IMO.Unfortunately as Wallace states, work on this is scant. With the digital archives of period texts today I would think that patterns might be found taking into account the target audience of each text.
1) I don't think we've discussed the anaphoric use yet, but mainly talked about the article conjoined with a proper name. Not all articles paired with proper names are anaphoric. I'm not imputing the contrary view to you. However, I just want to clarify that point.2) Articles can be used deictically, but NT Greek tends to use demonstratives for "this" and "that" as I demonstrated with Acts 2:32-36. I also don't believe the articles in Jn 20:29-30 are anaphoric anyway. 3) The target audience can affect the writing of texts, just like our multiple genres/media sources today. But we must have some precedents to base our judgements on--examples or something. Furthermore, I would question what basis we have for thinking that one of the GNT writers used the article demonstratively, to communicate with the recipients of his letter. I emphasize that the article can be used demonstratively. However, we normally have good reason for thinking a certain use of the article is deictic or not.
Acts 2 could be more definite, as we would say in English. "This one, yes this Jesus".Examples are subjective and speculative in many cases, as demonstrated with our discussion on the target audience of John. So your question in 3 runs both ways.
Not trying to be picky or overly pedantic, but in Acts 2:32, τοῦτον τὸν Ἰησοῦν is "This Jesus" or "This the Jesus."τοῦτον τὸν Ἰησοῦν in 2:36 is the same construction: "This Jesus" or "This the Jesus." Would it be "This one, yes this Jesus"? I don't think that's the most likely construal since all three words are in accusative masculine and when we consider how constructions like this one normally function.Who constitutes the target audience may be subjective or speculative, but I would respectfully submit that the evidence for a writer using a different syntactical construction based on the presumed audience ought not be subjective or speculative.Best regards,Edgar
τοῦτον is a construct from 2 words?In many ways speculation is the name of the game (at least initially) & I was not suggesting a word for word equivalent but something similar in usage.
τοῦτον is from οὗτος, but I was just trying to make the point that τοῦτον τὸν Ἰησοῦν communicates something different than τὸν Ἰησοῦν alone would. For a good explanation of οὗτος, see http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0007:smythp=333I also see what you mean by "something similar in usage." The only reason I pushed for a "wooden" rendering was to illustrate why I don't believe constructions like John 20:29-30 are examples of the demonstrative articular usage.
τοῦτον = the here ?
τοῦτον is from οὗτος and it usually functions as a demonstrative. As Smyth explains, ὅδε can mean "this (here), but οὗτος is normally "this" or "that." This goes back to the Acts 2:32-36 example.
Gen 3:12 lxx = she?
Yes. The form there is feminine, but it's still a demonstrative word. NETS LXX renders this part: "she gave me of the tree"
Thanks.Not sure where to post this but am sure you will find it interesting.https://www.biblicallanguagecenter.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/04/9789004263406_04-EBRAISTI.pdfIt adds some level of confirmation to one of my speculations.
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