Greek articles can be used deictically or anaphorically, but NT Greek tends to use demonstratives to signify "this" and "that" as we find with Acts 2:32-36. Additionally, it seems that the articles in Jn. 20:29-30 are not anaphoric.
The target audience most certainly affects the writing of texts, just like it does with our multiple genres and media sources today. But we must have some precedents on which to base our judgments: we need examples of some kind to justify our grammatical claims. Furthermore, I would question what basis we have for thinking that one of the NT writers used the article demonstratively/anaphorically to communicate unique ideas with the recipients of his letter.
I emphasize that the article can be used demonstratively/anaphorically; however, we normally have good reason for thinking that a certain use of the article is anaphoric or not.
See http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0007%3Apart%3D4%3Achapter%3D40%3Asection%3D73
2 comments:
This seems to support my view of Philippians 2, i.e. there is no reason to think that there's an anaphoric link between "form of God" and "equality with God":-)
I agree with you, and I would say Carl Conrad does too. What Carl told me about the verse makes the most sense. He used to deny the article was functioning anaphorically there.
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