Saturday, April 23, 2022

James 1:22-27 (Some Thoughts)

As I conclude this discussion of James 1, I now turn toward the chapter's closing verses. This blog entry concentrates on specific parts of James 1:22-27 without going into technical depth about most of the grammar or syntax.

James 1:22 shows the importance of applying God's word rather than being a hearer only. In the GNT, παραλογίζομαι occurs here and in Colossians 2:4. The next portion of this chapter then illustrates why "doing God's word" is so important--why one should not be a forgetful hearer of the divine law. Kurt A. Richardson (James:
An Exegetical and Theological Exposition of Holy Scripture) writes:

"To be a hearer or to have faith only (cf. 2:24) is self-deceiving. Faith must be demonstrated (cf. 3:13), and to miss this is a fundamental flaw in understanding. No one who has called upon God for wisdom can or should think undemonstrated faith is true."
James 1:23 gives the example of a person looking at his/her natural face in a mirror (ἐν ἐσόπτρῳ). Imagine the person gazing in the mirror, then seeing that some adjustments need to be made (e.g., hair needs to be combed, teeth need to be brushed, face needs to be washed), but then he/she walks off and immediately forgets (εὐθέως ἐπελάθετο) what the mirror revealed (see James 1:24). This is what it's like to hear the word of God but then not apply it (do what it says). ἔσοπτρον occurs elsewhere in the GNT at 1 Corinthians 13:12.

Martin Dibelius takes note of the participle introducing the mirror simile in 1:23 (
κατανοοῦντι), which he takes to mean that James 1:23 encapsulates all that needs to be said about the mirror comparison: verse 24 just underscores the simile (Dibelius, James, page 115). He also takes the verbs here to be gnomic aorists (e.g., κατενόησεν, ἐπελάθετο), but I disagree that James' mirror comparison has no connection with known examples in antiquity.

Luke T. Johnson makes a perceptive observation about this aspect of the epistle (The Letter of James, page 208):

In the Hellenistic world the mirror (usually made of polished metal) was chiefly used for purposes of personal inspection and adornment (Aristotle, On Dreams 459B-460A; Josephus, Ant. 12:81; Sir 12:11; Seneca, Natural Questions 1, 17, 2-3). But the fact that the mirror provided a reflection of the self obviously gave it metaphorical potential. In one direction, an epistemological distinction was developed, in which the mirror signified the distance between reality and image (sec Plato, Timaeus 33B; Hermetica 17; Wis 7:26); this seems to be the sense in 1 Cor 13:12 and possibly 2 Cor 3:18. In another direction, the mirror is used in paraenetic literature for the image of 'moral self-examination/reflection' (sec, e.g., Epictetus, Discourses II, 14, 17-23; Seneca, Natural Questions 1,17,4; On Anger 36:1-3; Plutarch, Advice to Bride and Groom 14 and 25 ([Mor. 139F and 141D]). The analogy is worked out especially by Plutarch, On Listening to Lectures 8 (Mor. 42A-B), who employs the theme of memory in a manner similar to James. Sec also Plutarch, The Education of Children 13-20 (Mor. 9F-14A); Progress in Virtue 14-15 (Mor. 84B-85A); Seneca, On Clemency I, 1, 1; I, 1,7; I,6,1; I,7,1; I,15,3; Philo, Contemplative Life 25, 29, 75, 85, 88. There is no reason to connect the metaphor here to any notion of the "image of God" (against Martin 50, 55). Above all, it is certainly erroneous to assert that "James is not relying on any fixed tradition or previous literature" (Davids, 98), for his allusion makes sense only within the intertextual field here described.
On the other hand, the person who looks intently into the perfect law of freedom (
ὁ δὲ παρακύψας εἰς νόμον τέλειον τὸν τῆς ἐλευθερίας) and continues in it (καὶ παραμείνας), because he is not a forgetful hearer of the word, that one will be happy or blessed by God since this kind of person is a doer of Jehovah God's work (οὗτος μακάριος ἐν τῇ ποιήσει αὐτοῦ ἔσται).

James 1:26 transitions to how one uses the tongue and it defines the nature of true religiosity in contrast to mere formalism. However, this verse not only introduces a new subject and works toward a rhetorical terminus, but it forms a nexus with James 1:19 and foreshadows the discussion in chapter three about the tongue. (Compare James 1:22 where it warns against self-deception).

Ralph Earle points out that James utilizes
the nominal θρησκὸς as a predicate adjective in 1:26. See Word Meanings in the New Testament, page 433. While the term appears to encompass outward religious observances, I do not think it always carries pejorative overtones.

Kurt A. Richardson (James):
"James called the religion that goes with an uncontrolled tongue 'worthless.' His attention was on the practices of religion, its services and sacrifices. Worthless religion is then merely external and a virtual idolatry involving self-deception."

What then constitutes true religion? How should it be practiced? The kind of religion that is pure and undefiled before God the Father is the type (
παρὰ τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ αὕτη ἐστίν) that looks after orphans and widows in their tribulation and it remains unspotted from the world. Compare James 1:2-4; 2:14-17; 4:1-4; 5:1-6.

θρησκεία-compare Colossians 2:18, 23. This word appears 4x in the GNT. Louw-Nida (Semantic Domain 53.1) gives this rendering for θρησκεία in James 1:26: "if he does not control his tongue, he deceives himself, and his religion is worthless." Ralph Earle adds this additional information (Word Meanings in the New Testament, page 433):

"The noun is thrēskeia in both places. In verse 26 it carries its primary sense of outward observances, but in verse 27 it seems to include more. It consists not only of righteous acts but also of pure character."

καθαρὰ καὶ ἀμίαντος-"pure and undefiled"; see Philo of Alexandria, De Fuga Et Inventione 114; Hermas, Mand. ii.4; Sim. v. 7. The words constitute a possible hendiadys in this verse (McCartney); J.B. Mayor maintains they're often employed concurrently (The Epistle of James, page 73).

παρὰ τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ αὕτη ἐστίν-God is identified as Father in this verse: the Most High God is infrequently called "Father" in the Hebrew Bible, but GNT writers use the designation more liberally, and this is probably because of Jesus' practice in the days of his flesh, also due to his preexistence, and Jesus' Abba experience (Mark 14:36). Compare James 1:17.

ἐπισκέπτεσθαι ὀρφανοὺς καὶ χήρας ἐν τῇ θλίψει αὐτῶν-the verb denotes the act of caring for, providing for, and looking after someone. ESV renders this part, "to visit orphans and widows in their affliction"; NET translates, "to care for orphans and widows in their adversity"--compare how BDAG handles ἐν τῇ θλίψει αὐτῶν. See NET note for James 1:27.

Rogers and Rogers:



4 comments:

Roman said...

I've been working through an idea that James was, in part, an attempt to stop the ideology of patronage entering the congregations and to maintain the koinonia, partially by appealing to the class based eschatology which there in Jesus's teachings and drawn from the prophets.

Edgar Foster said...

That's an interesting take on James, and I haven't explored which writers/scholars might use patronage for this epistle. It would be interesting to see you spell it out one day.

Roman said...

John Kloppenborg has an article on it.
https://www.academia.edu/75902931/Patronage_avoidance_in_James

I'll email you my own one.

Edgar Foster said...

Thanks brother. I appreciate it.