In Jn. 20:28, Thomas possibly calls Jesus Lord
and God while not equating him with YHWH (Ps. 8:5-6;
82:1-6). Jesus had already been identified as "a god"
(NWT) in Jn. 1:1 and as "the only-begotten god" (See
N.T. Wright's tentative translation of this passage in
his NTPG) in Jn. 1:18. But John equally made it clear
that men could be called "gods" without transgressing
the boundaries of Jewish monotheism (Jn. 10:34-36).
The Lord also spoke of "the only true God" in Jn. 17:3.
And Jesus did not identify himself with "the only
true God" (See Raymond Brown in his Anchor Bible
commentary on John).
I thus believe that whether one decides biblical verses
such as Jn. 20:28 are subject nominatives or
nominatives of address, he or she can still hold that
Jesus is not Almighty God. I make these preliminary
statements in view of what might be an example of the
nominative for a vocative, namely, Jn. 17:25:
Πατὴρ δίκαιε, καὶ ὁ κόσμος σε οὐκ ἔγνω, ἐγὼ δέ σε ἔγνων, καὶ οὗτοι ἔγνωσαν ὅτι σύ με ἀπέστειλας
Monday, August 28, 2017
John 17:25- Nominative for a Vocative?
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4 comments:
Yes, he said my lord and my God, like oh my God. Many of us are expressing ourselves with the words my God when we encounter something unexpected or unbelievable. It seems it could possibly be a small G but I am understanding that there were no small letters in uncial script Greek script, of course I could be wrong.
Philip, uncials are all caps. We normally have to rely on other language features to determine whether theos should be small or capital G in translation.
The text explicitly states that Thomas “answered and said to Him” (ἀπεκρίθη καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ). The use of "to Him" (αὐτῷ) clearly indicates that Thomas is speaking directly to Jesus, not making a general exclamation. While it is true that the nominative case can occasionally serve as an exclamation, the construction here with ὁ ("the") and the possessive pronoun μου ("my") strongly indicates personal address. This is supported by the lack of any textual or contextual cues suggesting a mere exclamation. Moreover, nominative-for-vocative constructions are not uncommon in the New Testament, especially in solemn or formal declarations, as seen in Romans 9:5, where Christ is called ὁ θεὸς ("the God").
Throughout the Gospel of John, Jesus is presented as more than a mere agent or subordinate being. John 1:1 identifies Him as God, and John 10:30 affirms His oneness with the Father. Thomas’s declaration aligns perfectly with this Christological emphasis. The possessive pronoun μου ("my") and the definite article ὁ ("the") indicate a personal, reverential declaration, not a generic exclamation. The broader Johannine context consistently presents Jesus as divine (e.g., John 1:1, 1:18, 10:30), supporting the capitalization of θεός in this instance.
In John 10, Jesus defends His claim to be the Son of God against accusations of blasphemy. He references Psalm 82, where corrupt judges are sarcastically called "gods" because of their position of authority. However, these so-called "gods" are explicitly condemned by God and reminded of their mortality (Psalm 82:7). In contrast, Jesus distinguishes Himself as the one whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world (John 10:36). Unlike the judges in Psalm 82, Jesus’s claim to divinity is validated by His works (John 10:37-38) and by His resurrection (Romans 1:4).
When Thomas declares, “My Lord and my God,” he is not using the term "God" in a generic sense (as in Psalm 82). He explicitly combines "Lord" and "God" in a personal, possessive confession directed at Jesus. This is unparalleled in the New Testament and reflects a recognition of Jesus’s unique divine status.
The Greek text of John 1:1 reads: θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος ("the Word was God"). The lack of the definite article with θεός reflects a qualitative use, emphasizing the Word's divine nature rather than suggesting the Word is "a god" in a subordinate sense. The New World Translation’s rendering of "a god" is unsupported by standard Greek grammar and context. The prologue of John establishes the Word’s eternal, divine nature and unity with the Father (John 1:1-3). In John 17:3, Jesus identifies the Father as "the only true God," but this does not exclude Jesus from also being God. Trinitarian theology affirms that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit share one divine essence. Jesus, in His earthly ministry, often emphasizes the Father’s role to reflect His submission as the incarnate Son. John 17:3 must be read alongside passages like John 1:1, John 10:30, and John 20:28, which affirm Jesus’s divine nature.
Nincsnevem, I've shared Fitzmyer's commentary on Romans 9:5 with you and I think he concludes that one cannot be dogmatic about the passage. See also R.E. Brown, another Catholic scholar, in case I don't have time to post his remarks. He too concludes that Romans 9:5 is not definitive proof for Christ's deity.
The Catholic NABRE reads: "theirs the patriarchs, and from them, according to the flesh, is the Messiah. God who is over all* be blessed forever. Amen."
In the footnote, we find this observation: Some editors punctuate this verse differently and prefer the translation, “Of whom is Christ according to the flesh, who is God over all.” However, Paul’s point is that God who is over all aimed to use Israel, which had been entrusted with every privilege, in outreach to the entire world through the Messiah.
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