This post was written before the advent of BDAG but I've edited it some. Galatians 3:28-οὐκ ἔνι Ἰουδαῖος οὐδὲ Ἕλλην, οὐκ ἔνι δοῦλος οὐδὲ ἐλεύθερος, οὐκ ἔνι ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ· πάντες γὰρ ὑμεῖς εἷς ἐστὲ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ.
1) BAGD says that ἄρσεν is used to strongly emphasize the sex of the referent (cf. Rom. 1:27). This could be a possibility in Gal. 3:28. Also the LXX has καὶ ἐποίησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν ἄνθρωπον κατ᾽ εἰκόνα θεοῦ ἐποίησεν αὐτόν ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν αὐτούς, so there may be no significance as regards the change of usage in Gal. 3:28. Plato, Aristotle, Philo and Josephus also have a similar construction in their writings.
(2) Timothy George says that there is significance in the change to καὶ. Evidently Paul is extracting his phraseology from Gen. 1:27 (LXX); he could be saying that the relationship between male and female differs from that of the first two binary oppositions. Man and woman need each other in a way that Jew and Greek or master and slave do not.
(3) Conversely, Richard Longenecker writes that the change in Gal. 3:28 implies no real change in meaning. Based on the LXX and the classical literature, he could have a point.
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