Showing posts with label Philippians. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Philippians. Show all posts

Friday, October 25, 2024

Some Secondary Literature on the Kenosis Account (Philippians 2:5-11)-In Process

Some Secondary Literature on the Kenosis Account

Bloomquist, L. Gregory. The Function of Suffering in Philippians. Sheffield: Sheffield Academic Press, 1993.

Hellerman, Joseph H. Reconstructing Honor in Roman Philippi: Carmen Christi as Cursus Pudorum. Society for New Testament Studies Monograph 132. New York: Cambridge University, 2005.

Hoover, Roy W. "The hARPAGMOS Enigma: A Philological Solution." HTR 64 (1971): 95-119.

Hurst, L.D. "Re-enter the Pre-existent Christ in Philippians 2.5-11?" NTS 32 (1986): 449-457.

Martin, Ralph P. and Brain J. Dodd. Where Christology Began: Essays on
Philippians 2
. Louisville, KY: John Knox Press, 1998.

O'Neill, J.C. "Hoover on hARPAGMOS Reviewed, with a Modest Proposal
Concerning Philippians 2:6." HTR 81:4 (1988): 445-449.

Osiek, Carolyn. Philippians, Philemon. Nashville: Abingdon Press, 2000.

Reumann, John. Philippians : A New Translation with Introduction and Commentary. New Haven: Yale University Press, 2008.

Wannamaker, C.A. "Philippians 2.6-11: Son of God or Adamic Christology." NTS 33 (1987): 179-193.

Wednesday, September 25, 2024

Philippians 2:22-Like Father and Son

Please note that the focus of this post is not the kenosis of Christ or the Trinity doctrine, but how to understand the Greek of Philippians 2:22.

Greek:
τὴν δὲ δοκιμὴν αὐτοῦ γινώσκετε, ὅτι ὡς πατρὶ τέκνον σὺν ἐμοὶ ἐδούλευσεν εἰς τὸ εὐαγγέλιον.
 
ESV: "But you know Timothy's proven worth, how as a son with a father he has served with me in the gospel."

The words in Philippians 2:22 hearken back to Phil. 1:1; 2:6-7. There in the later verses, Paul delineates how Jesus (who existed in God's form) assumed the form of a slave. Now in Phil. 2:22, as is customary, Paul begins with the postpositive δὲ that here functions adversatively. 

γινώσκετε is the present active indicative 2nd person plural of γινώσκω and it's the "main verb of the independent clause" (Thomas Moore, Philippians, page 158). The object of γινώσκετε is τὴν δοκιμὴν (accusative singular feminine) and the verb could either be a progressive present that denotes continuous action at the present time or it could be a customary present, which describes an action that occurs on a regular basis.

Moore points out that ὅτι functions syntactically to identify the dependent conjunctive clause that modifies δοκιμὴν: on the other hand, he points out that the ὅτι clause functions semantically in such a way that it amplifies the import of δοκιμὴν (i.e., it functions substantivally and epexegetically). The ESV renders δοκιμὴν αὐτοῦ, "Timothy's proven worth"; compare BDAG.

While studying this passage, I found ὡς πατρὶ τέκνον to be quite interesting due to what comes next. In this part of the verse, Paul alludes to the spiritual relationship that he and Timothy shared: the former was like a father to the latter (1 Corinthians 4:17; Philippians 2:15; 1 Thessalonians 2:7, 11; 1 Timothy 1:2, 18; 5:1-2; 2 Timothy 1:2; 2:1 and compare Titus 1:4; Philemon 10). The language here is supposed to connote more tenderness than if Paul had used υἱός.

Joseph Hellerman explains that πατρὶ τέκνον portrays Timothy as a subordinate to Paul, but σὺν ἐμοὶ ἐδούλευσεν depicts Timothy as a fellow-worker with the apostle for the sake of the good news (Hellerman, Philippians, page 150). The language employed here is supposed to be reflective of how Elijah and Elisha related to one another: Hellerman likewise suggests that the ancient rabbis enjoyed this kind of camaraderie with their disciples.

One thing that struck me while reading this account is that Paul seems to juxtapose two different images or metaphors: a slave and a dear child. The apostle writes that Timothy was both a slave and child as he imitated the example of Jesus Christ. Hellerman mentions the "social stigma" that was attached to slavery, but conversely, calling Timothy a "child" would connote tenderness. In his NIGT Commentary on Philippians, Peter O'Brien writes:

"In speaking of Timothy being like (ὡς) a τέxνoν and himself as a πατὴρ, Paul is using the imagery of spiritual parenthood1630 that he employed elsewhere and that had its counterpart in Judaism, ultimately deriving from the OT. So he calls himself the father of an entire Christian community, the Corinthians whom he had begotten ‘in Christ Jesus through the gospel’ (1 Cor. 4:15; cf. Gal. 4:19), while he describes Timothy (1 Cor. 4:17; 2 Tim. 1:2) and Titus (Tit. 1:4) as his children."

Lastly, Hellerman makes the observation that εἰς τὸ εὐαγγέλιον discloses the action in which Timothy was engaged, not the content of the message (page 151). In this connection, ἐδούλευσεν could be a gnomic aorist.



Saturday, December 09, 2023

Philippians 2:6 in the Amplified Bible

"who, although He existed in the form and unchanging essence of God [as One with Him, possessing the fullness of all the divine attributes—the entire nature of deity], did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped or asserted [as if He did not already possess it, or was afraid of losing it];" (Philippians 2:6, Amplified Bible)

Sorry, but there is great overreach in this verse by the Amplified Bible. While this passage is a highly contentious verse in NT scholarship, rendering morphe as "unchanging essence" does not seem warranted here at all and the bracketed "amplification" isn't any better.

P. M. Casey writes:

"On a strict definition of 'incarnation,' Philippians 2:6-11 does not qualify because Jesus was not fully divine, in the view of the original author" (From Jewish Prophet to Gentile God [Cambridge, UK and Louisville, KY: James Clarke and Westminster/John Knox, 1991], 112-114).

While the NIV translates Phil. 2:6, "Who being in very nature God," Carolyn Osiek believes that this translation is not wholly faithful to the Greek text. Contra the NIV, she does not think 2:6 teaches the absolute Deity of Christ (See Osiek 2000:60ff).

C.A. Wannamaker's article on Phil. 2:6ff contains the following observation:

"In this passage Paul maintains that Christ's universal sovereignty derives from the Father and that ultimately the Son shall be subject to the Father when he returns his present sovereignty to God. The subordinationist character of 1 Cor. 15:24-28 demonstrates quite clearly that Paul did not believe in Christ's absolute equality with God" (Wannamaker 187-188).

Observations from Wannamaker's article are found in my Christology and Trinity book, which can be purchased on amazon.com.

See C.A. Wannamaker (NT Studies, Vol. 33, 1987, pp. 179-193).

The Catholic New Jerusalem Bible treats the Greek this way: "Who, being in the form of God, did not count equality with God something to be grasped."

The Catholic NABRE reads similarly and contains this footnote on Phil. 2:6:

"[2:6] Either a reference to Christ’s preexistence and those aspects of divinity that he was willing to give up in order to serve in human form, or to what the man Jesus refused to grasp at to attain divinity. Many see an allusion to the Genesis story: unlike Adam, Jesus, though…in the form of God (Gn 1:26–27), did not reach out for equality with God, in contrast with the first Adam in Gn 3:5–6."

In any event, the Catholic Bibles I've consulted don't translate the Greek phrase, morphe theou as "in very nature God"

Wednesday, January 18, 2023

J.C. O'Neill and Harpagmos (Philippians 2:6)--A Brief Note

Dear readers, I recommend the following article by J.C. O'Neill, which can be found in the Harvard Theological Review 81.4 (1988): 445-449.

The first paragraph states: "It has been held that R.W. Hoover's article on hARPAGMOS in Phil. 2:6 has 'undercut at a stroke' all contrary views, and that 'no one has ventured to challenge him on philological grounds.' I am afraid Hoover's views, for all the skill and knowledge he brought to bear on a complicated set of philological phenomena, are wide open to challenge. I doubt if he really did settle the meaning of hARPAGMOS in Phil. 2:6."

O'Neill produces an interesting read.

However, compare https://www.semanticscholar.org/paper/%E1%BC%81%CF%81%CF%80%CE%B1%CE%B3%CE%BC%CF%8C%CF%82-Revisited%3A-A-Philological-Reexamination-of-Martin/0e0bb59438ab31b9ce7176a27e22cdd8951c3863

The debate goes on, but regardless of one's Christology, I still have a difficult time believing that harpagmos is used passively in Phil. 2:6.

See https://brill.com/view/journals/bi/25/3/article-p342_4.xml

Even F.F. Bruce (an Evangelical scholar) tried to make a case for understanding harpagmos actively rather than passively.

Friday, January 06, 2023

In What Sense Was/Is Jesus In God's Form? (Philippians 2:6)

Trinity Delusion recently posted this video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cTRu1Q_yIWU&list=WL&index=65

I want to hear and assess his claims. Posting this video certainly does not mean that I agree with him.