"At 1 Cor. 2:11 'spirit' connotes something like 'human consciousness,' the organ of self-knowledge. A similar use is evidenced at Rom. 8:16--'The Spirit of God beareth witness to (or, with) our spirit that we are the children of God'--where the human spirit is considered as that part of man which receives spiritual knowledge" (
Greek Words and Hebrew Meanings: Studies in the Semantics of Soteriological Terms, page 284).
27 comments:
www.mcmaster.ca/mjtm/documents/MJTM_12.1_BaxterFallacies_001.pdf
Since diachronic and synchronic analysis is all but impossible for ancient Hebrew these fallacies are in of themselves fallacies in that regard.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pneuma#Judaism_and_Christianity
If it means wind in greek then it has the same meaning as Hebrew. Breath denotes one thing only, action.
The character of God beareth witness to (or, with) our character that we are the children of God.
ABP - For who [knows of men] the things of man.
Duncan,
Do you really want to rehearse the diachronic/synchronic discussion all over again? :)
Firstly, I don't see how Hill has committed an exegetical fallacy by suggesting what "spirit" could mean in 1 Cor 2:11; Rom 8:16. Secondly, as I've stated before, we have enough materials (Hebrew and Greek) to do diachronic and synchronic analyses on some level and we can perform such analyses in a satisfactory manner. Don't take my word for it. See the writings of Robert Alter and other Hebrew scholars.
The meaning of pneuma (like other words) is determined by a literary context or usus loquendi. Furthermore, it is questionable whether it simple means "wind" in Greek. In 1 Cor 2:11, it cannot mean "wind." Nor do I believe that "character" is an acceptable rendering in Rom 8:16 since the act of witnessing (giving testimony) is taking place there. Compare Gal. 4:6ff.
Additionally, breath is not merely action, but a certain kind of physical action. At any rate, mind or self-consciousness seems to be the focus in 1 Cor 2:11.
The Greek term does not mean wind in a general sense (neither does the Hebrew).
http://free-ebooks.gr/en/book/greek-seismology-being-an-annotated-sourcebook-of-earthquake-theories-and-concepts-in-classical-antiquity
The wind referred to that was thought to produce seismos being pnuma. The wind with purpose. That which comes from the gods or God that drives action - where we get the term pnumatic. Wind driven, wind with purpose.
https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=XYLpjTpkp5ccc
It's all about actions
http://biblehub.com/psalms/51.htm
Because you are his sons, God sent the motivation of his Son into our minds, the wind who calls out, “Abba,[a] Father.”
http://biblehub.com/hebrews/4-12.htm
Divide a person and their actions.
Where we disagree is that I don't believe the Hebrew or Greek terms for "spirit" mean "wind" as such. I insists that context determines the meaning of a signifier--so you cannot say what it means until the usus loquendi is established.
From research I've done before:
In Gen 1:2, God's spirit is not His self: it is a force (akin to wind) that is being used to prepare the earth for habitation. Judg 14:6 also speaks of God's spirit as an empowering force that enables a human judge to carry out or accomplish the divine Will. Furthermore, Ps 33:6 likens God's spirit to His breath or command which brings forth the heavens and the earth. Therefore, even if ruach originally meant "wind" or "breath," there is no guarantee that the term has that meaning in every context: nor does pneuma.
Concerning 1 Cor 2:10ff:
In these verses the word PNEUMA is used in more than the usual variety of ways. Paul speaks of the spirit of man, the spirit of the world (KOSMOS, not AIWN) and the Spirit of God. The English texts attempt to make the distinction clear by the use of capitals for the last. But since the Greek has no such indication, we cannot be sure when Paul means the divine Spirit and when he means simply this faculty in human nature. He nevertheless makes a tremendous claim in this passage. In the bestowal of the Spirit men have received nothing less than God's self-consciousness. Therefore they are able to understand his secret wisdom" (Interpreter's Bible, Vol. 10, pp. 39-40, Emphases Mine).
The sending of holy spirit mentioned in Gal 4:6ff hearkens back to Pentecost and thereafter wherein God the Father sends his spirit through the Son on the 120 and more. Was it simply his motivation that was poured out from heaven? How does one pour out motivation into someone's heart? How does that motivation then empower disciples to bear witness regarding the Christ? How does motivation say "Abba!"? What is the connection between wind and motivation? How is it possible for the wind to cry out "Abba!"?
Context matters. See http://biblehub.com/greek/4151.htm
I don't understand Heb 4:12 to reference the human person as such, but rather the deepest thoughts and motivations of the human heart (figuratively speaking). Notice how 4:12 spells out this idea in ESV. There's also synonymous parallelism in this verse:
"For the word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and of spirit, of joints and of marrow, and discerning the thoughts and intentions of the heart."
Compare vs. 13, which speaks of all things being "laid bare" before Jehovah's eyes.
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=8ZzvNc6Y4rUC&pg=PA9&lpg=PA9&dq=after+aristotle+pneuma&source=bl&ots=8q29xbDfLE&sig=hoIRSHlWhOVRZGaCeATlK8X1r2I&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CCsQ6AEwBGoVChMI5pTRxffCyAIVCbgUCh3KKQCq#v=onepage&q=We%20can%20addafteadW&f=false
Final paragraph of 10.
http://perseus.mpiwg-berlin.mpg.de/cgi-bin///lexindex?lookup=a)eromuqi/w&db=lsj&lang=greek&display=&fugopo/lemos=
http://biblehub.com/greek/4151.htm
This is a circular definition and you know it.
Wind breath spirit.
https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/spiritus
Is spirit a third definition or just there to confuse ?!?
http://biblehub.com/john/20-22.htm
Regarding the google book link: good information, but it's not considered good form to impose an Attic/classical meaning for a word onto terms found in scripture. The Bible writers did not hold Aristotelian presuppositions. Hence, the reason why synchornic studies take precedence over diachronic ones.
As for the link that I posted from biblehub, I did not claim to endorse the definition in toto, but was making the point that context matters. Pneuma means one thing or another within a particular context of utterance. Most lexical works I read assume this point without much of an argument. But I don't have a problem with the definition "spirit" so long as we define how we're using the word. See Heb 1:7, 14.
Compare https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/pneuma
As for John 20:22, I never said that pneuma could not mean "breath" or "wind." However, the OP was about 1 Cor 2:11 and Rom 8:16. Pneuma clearly does not mean "breath" in either one of those passages.
Notice the Cambridge Bible commentary on Jn 20:22:
he breathed on them] The very same Greek verb (here only in N.T.) is used by the LXX. in Genesis 2:7 (Wis 15:11) of breathing life into Adam. This Gospel of the new Creation looks back at its close, as at its beginning (John 1:1), to the first Creation.
We are probably to regard the breath here not merely as the emblem of the Spirit (John 3:8), but as the means by which the Spirit was imparted to them. ‘Receive ye,’ combined with the action of breathing, implies this. This is all the more clear in the Greek, because pneuma means both ‘breath’ and ‘spirit,’ a point which cannot be preserved in English; but at least ‘Spirit’ is better than ‘Ghost’ We have here, therefore, an anticipation and earnest of Pentecost; just as Christ’s bodily return from the grave and temporary manifestation to them was an anticipation of His spiritual return and abiding Presence with them ‘even unto the end of the world.’
I am always amazed how these commentaries make some associations and not others. See 1 kings 19:11,12. There appear to be many connection to Elijah and Elisha in the NT that seem to be overlooked also how the term messenger should be understood in a number of cases.
The book of wisdom is believed to have been in the style pattern of hebrew verse which makes it likely that "breathed into him an active soul and a living spirit" is referring to one thing not two. The active being is a living wind.
TLB No one can really know what anyone else is thinking or what he is really like except that person himself. And no one can know God’s thoughts except God’s own Spirit.
The diachronic method is clearly based on the documentary hypothesis:-
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=XkYfd2gUersC&pg=PA21&lpg=PA21&dq=Robert+Alter+diachronic&source=bl&ots=DqxilG86qS&sig=53v4_2XlxDEjpDHqlgB4vQLHkp8&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CCAQ6AEwAGoVChMIprezhqnOyAIVo6pyCh1wRgaE#v=onepage&q=documentary&f=false
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=lK4eKBYq1zoC&pg=PA45&dq=Robert+Alter+synchronic&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDAQ6AEwA2oVChMI0YCw56rOyAIVwwQaCh3dUg1z#v=onepage&q=Robert%20Alter%20synchronic&f=false
Squarely based on the DH.
http://www.thefamilymap.org/wp-content/plugins/uamsadmin/uploads/training/example-documents/Spanish/Alter,%20Robert_%20The%20Art%20of%20Biblical%20Narrative.pdf
http://judaic.arizona.edu/sites/judaic.arizona.edu/files/files-event/Alter.pdf
The diachronic method may bear some historical relationship to the documentary hypothesis, but I think the method preceded the DH. I guess the terms synchronic and diachornic were first employed by Ferdinand de Saussure, but the diachronic method had to precede him.
See http://www.encyclopedia.com/doc/1O29-DIACHRONICANDSYNCHRONIC.html
http://www.indiana.edu/~lingdept/faculty/davis/LinguisticsENC.pdf
Regarding my comment on Wisdom:-
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZSQqde4y-Vc
Parallel & amplified repetition. At least I can find agreement with Alter on this point.
https://www.academia.edu/4194269/_Synchrony_and_Diachrony_in_Contemporary_Biblical_Interpretation_CBQ_2013_
This is just the beginning IMO of the deconstruction of these two categories.
Just as a side point relating to our previous discussion regarding the concreteness and synthetic structure of ancient Hebrew. This presentation of Alter states some important points.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iuj9PW_qvIE
Also regarding adopted words that do not fit within the Hebrew root system.
Piecing the evidence together regarding Sodom and Gomorrah & other cities in the flats of this valley:-
Genesis 14:10
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=jGHRR32wz5MC&pg=PA588&lpg=PA588&dq=tar+bitumen+effect+on+estrogen&source=bl&ots=xx3a-upUrw&sig=im2wLlA8yw6AbQeCsbjGlWBVySk&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDgQ6AEwA2oVChMIkdv5yvnQyAIVROwUCh1Xrw1w#v=onepage&q=tar%20bitumen%20effect%20on%20estrogen&f=false
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=5MkACAAAQBAJ&pg=PA322&dq=hydrocarbon+hermaphrodite&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CEoQ6AEwB2oVChMI5Li26v_QyAIViYkaCh3zUQrC#v=onepage&q=hydrocarbon%20hermaphrodite&f=false
Epidemial study would be needed on populations exposed to hydrocarbons such as tar and bitumen today to see if estrogen receptor in fish and humans work the same - my suspicion is that they do.
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