λαλεῖ in Heb. 11:4 is a present indicative active 3rd singular verb form. But are we to assume that Abel still literally spoke in the first century CE because the writer of Hebrews uses the present form in that verse? Of course, those who believe in some type of intermediate state will possibly contend that Abel yet speaks in that way. However, one could understand 11:4 to mean that Abel speaks through his faithful example in association with the sacrifices that he presented to YHWH long ago:
"And by it, he being dead, yet speaketh; good men die, and some of them die a violent death, as did Abel, yet he speaks in the Scriptures, which have a voice in them, (Luke 16:29) or by his blood, which calls for vengeance; or rather by, or because of his faith, though he is dead, 'he is yet spoken of', as the word may be rendered" (Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible).
On the other hand, Henry Alford insists that Abel speaks by means of his shed blood (Hebrews 12:24; Compare Gen. 4:10). Just because Hebrews employs present verb forms does not have to mean that the writer is referring to those contemporaneous with him.