Sunday, December 23, 2018

Wine and Glad Hearts?

ESV renders Psalm 104:15, "and wine to gladden the heart of man," but I understand this usage of "heart" to be figurative like Deuteronomy 6:5ff. Also see how the Greeks used kardia (compare Romans 2:28-29; 1 Peter 3:4).

Since God made wine to gladden the human heart and Jesus even turned water into wine, there's apparently nothing wrong with being "merry/glad" from wine; however, being drunk is another matter, and problem drinking is still another story. In my humble estimation, moderation is the key: "Give me neither riches nor poverty." We likely need to avoid extremes when it comes to eating, drinking, our clothing or anything else (1 Corinthians 10:31). The main thing is whether we're glorifying Jehovah God by our eating and drinking habits.

13 comments:

Philip Fletcher said...

Yes I agree, he wants us to have merriment and wine is just one of the ways he has for us to experience it. God never wants us to get drunk, which is very different in the bible as to what is commonly viewed as drunk. Still we want to be even careful of being given to a lot of wine.

Edgar Foster said...

I agree, Philip. Alcoholic beverages are rare things for me and my wife. And if servants of God habitually drink large quantities of wine, etc., that would be sinful. We also don't want to stumble others with drink either.

Duncan said...

Deuteronomy 6:5 is a deutero formula:-

https://biblehub.com/text/deuteronomy/6-5.htm

mind and body (and strength)

http://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/ted_hildebrandt/otesources/05-deuteronomy/Text/Articles/Willoughby-Deut6-RestQ.pdf

How do you impose it on psalms, without the accompanying similarities?

You assessment of psalms may be correct in its time, just not sure a comparison to Deuteronomy is effective.

Edgar Foster said...

Thanks, Duncan. The one comparison I made between Psalm 104:15 and Deuteronomy 6:5 is the use of "heart" in both verses. Granted, Deuteronomy is formulaic and the psalm is not, but does that mean "heart" cannot have the same/similar meaning in both verses? Personally, I don't see how that follows. To illustrate, we have a saying in English, "mind, body, and soul." Now while that expression is idiomatic and should be understood as a whole (i.e., formulaically) rather than in terms of its constituent parts, one should not infer that "mind" or the other terms cannot have the same meaning when used separately. In any event, I felt it was largely uncontroversial that "heart" in both passages (whatever it means) could have the same meaning.

Benson Commentary on Deut 6:5: "With all thy heart — It is not only the external action, but the internal affection of the mind that God requires; an affection which influences all our actions, in secret as well as in public."

Barnes Notes on Deut 6:5: The "heart" is mentioned as the seat of the understanding; the "soul" as the center of will and personality; the "might" as representing the outgoings and energies of all the vital powers.

Also see Gesenius here: https://books.google.com/books?id=TXZ8MFz6Da0C&pg=PR427&dq=meaning+of+heart+in+psalm+104:15&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjqjbOn2uPfAhUR1lkKHYxbD20Q6AEIWjAI#v=onepage&q=meaning%20of%20heart%20in%20psalm%20104%3A15&f=false

Duncan said...

I think heart is used twice in the psalm giving it broader application.

Edgar Foster said...

You're right that "heart" is used twice in the psalm, but let's also interpret my comment in its original context. I had written, "but I understand this usage of 'heart' to be figurative like Deuteronomy 6:5ff"

So the main point I was making is that "heart" when used in the saying about wine is figurative like the mention of "heart" in Deut 6:5. Maybe an argument for distinct uses of heart in Deut 6:5 and Psalm 104:15 could be made, but my original point is that both uses are figurative and I see nothing that strongly disproves that remark. If you looked at Gesenius, then you likely saw how he classified the use of heart in Deut 6:5 and Psalm 104:15. But however one interprets the veses, I find it hard to deny that heart is figurative in both texts.

Edgar Foster said...

Duncan, also see page 305 of the paper at www.scielo.org.za/pdf/ote/v21n2/03.pdf

Duncan said...

I agree that many commentaries lean in favour of the figurative but it is interesting also that Rashi reasons that "power" could mean property.

The analogy to "modern" english is dangerous as so many phrases has there roots in the oldest English bibles and especially the kjv. It heavily influenced an molded the language.

Edgar Foster said...

Duncan, I just used "mind, body, and soul as an example of idiomatic language wherein the whole is greater than its parts. About any other idiom could be used to illustrate the point that idioms usually are not to be understood in terms of their constituent parts: e.g., "it's par for the course," which thoroughly confused one friend I had because he was trying to translate the words rather than the idiom itself. It could be the same for the expression, "whole heart, soul, and mind." It too is likely an idiom, but "heart" may also be used figuratively in the idiom.

For other interpretations of the heart, see https://books.google.com/books?id=PusUSUJRpTsC&pg=PA124&lpg=PA124&dq=maimonides+psalm+104:15+wine&source=bl&ots=jZwX-7CqfA&sig=RPCzgD9rTofxgSkSMtLBIGPzZbo&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjy9qr2jObfAhVJjlkKHd8oDsMQ6AEwDXoECAEQAQ#v=onepage&q=maimonides%20psalm%20104%3A15%20wine&f=false

Duncan said...

This could have confirmation bias. Using the psalm to justify the later interpretations. Also, assuming that bread means food in general.

https://www.bbcgoodfood.com/howto/guide/10-foods-boost-your-brainpower

Edgar Foster said...

Duncan, I'm not sure if you meant that what I posted could have confirmation bias or what you posted, but it was not my intent to use the psalm for justifying later interpretations. My very slender point was only that heart is likely/could be figurative in Deut and the Psalms text. I was also focusing more on the wine/heart connection than I was the bread/heart of 104:15.

Duncan said...

No I was not implying that you have confirmation bias. I am just pointing out that heart may not mean stomach. It is an assumption that may may be based on the idea that we know better or more than the ancient author.

Edgar Foster said...

Thanks for clarifying. I don't believe the psalmist means "stomach" in 104:15, but I just shared Maimonides' comments to garner thoughts from blog readers.