Caesar did not hear Paul when he called on him (Acts 25:11), but whenever a person calls upon the Lord Jesus He always hears them for He fully knows the hearts of all. So it is not understood in the same way. In reference to Jesus it constitutes properly praying to Jesus (1 Corinthians 1:2; etc.) One must consider how the Greek word is used in context. Indeed, concerning the Greek word deomai (Strong's #1189) we see that in Luke 9:40 a man “begged” (ἐδεήθην) Christ’s disciples. This doesn’t mean he prayed to them even though deomai is used in Luke 10:2 concerning praying (δεήθητε) to the Lord of the harvest.
Theological Lexicon of the New Testament: First Corinthians is addressed to "those who call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ in any place" (1 Cor 1:2), the church being the gathering of those who adore Christ, who celebrate his worship (cf. Ps 145:18) and pray to him from a pure heart. Over and against the religious individualism of the Greek cities, all believers are united in their adoration of Christ as Lord and God; their common "invocation" is the expression of their unity. (2:44, epikaleō)
A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament: to invoke, to pray to, to worship...of Christ...1 Cor. 1:2 (epikaleō, page 279-280)
To call on is still not to pray & #7 carries the same contextual understanding as the Hebrew. If they meant pray they would say pray. An invocation is not the same as a prayer, but I am pretty sure you already know that.
"As nouns the difference between prayer and invocation is that prayer is a practice of communicating with one's god or prayer can be one who prays while invocation is the act or form of calling for >>>the assistance or presence of some superior being<<<; earnest and solemn entreaty; especially, prayer offered to a divine being."
So it is not something only done to a deity but also to a superior. Your preunderstanding (assumption?) is that it can only be to the one God.
The quote above is from Wiktionary, it is not mine & you are missing the point of a gloss by quoting the definitions of English words that are being used as gloss for the Greek word and concept that is built on Hebraic understanding.
"person and assuming that person's last name for oneself. Name-claiming happened all the time in the Roman world; the famous historian Josephus, for instance, name-claimed the name Flavius to demonstrate his patronage from emperor Vespasian, who in turn name-claimed the name Caesar in honor of Julius (see ACTS 25:11). The familiar idiom of "calling upon the name of the Lord" (ACTS 2:21, ROMANS 10:12, 1 CORINTHIANS 1:2), likewise, does not simply describe crying out the name of the deity, but rather claiming the deity's name as one's own surname, and thus claiming to be of his family. The name Christ, for instance, means Anointed and since we all share in the anointing (1 JOHN 2:20-27), those who are "in Christ" are Christs (not Christians). Jesus Christ is of course the initial and most famous Christ ... but since Jesus Christ is incarnate in his people, the world is full of Tom Christs, Dick Christs and Harry Christs (and the New Jerusalem is a kind of Citadel of Ricks, but then of Christs). Name-claiming is obviously an ancient practice; many Pharaohs and other kings incorporated god-names into their own, and a large majority of Hebrew names incorporate references to the Creator via specific theologies: hence the many -ab, -yah and -el names."
For name-claiming also see Matthew 1:21,23 & Luke 1:31 & Isaiah 7:14. The Christ would be specifically owned/with El and YHVH. To be given the name Joshua was significant for a number of reasons. "Yah is deliverance", which is directed to his god not to himself, just as the one who got Israel into the promised land was god and not the man he directed - Joshua.
If you can keep it to one post it won't be so fragmented. You are confused about Isaiah 43:1. If one honors God that means he/she worships God, but if God honors a person it doesn't mean God worships them (1 Samuel 2:30).
15 comments:
#7 "a person or god"
Caesar did not hear Paul when he called on him (Acts 25:11), but whenever a person calls upon the Lord Jesus He always hears them for He fully knows the hearts of all. So it is not understood in the same way. In reference to Jesus it constitutes properly praying to Jesus (1 Corinthians 1:2; etc.)
One must consider how the Greek word is used in context. Indeed, concerning the Greek word deomai (Strong's #1189) we see that in Luke 9:40 a man “begged” (ἐδεήθην) Christ’s disciples. This doesn’t mean he prayed to them even though deomai is used in Luke 10:2 concerning praying (δεήθητε) to the Lord of the harvest.
Theological Lexicon of the New Testament: First Corinthians is addressed to "those who call upon the name of our Lord Jesus Christ in any place" (1 Cor 1:2), the church being the gathering of those who adore Christ, who celebrate his worship (cf. Ps 145:18) and pray to him from a pure heart. Over and against the religious individualism of the Greek cities, all believers are united in their adoration of Christ as Lord and God; their common "invocation" is the expression of their unity. (2:44, epikaleō)
A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament: to invoke, to pray to, to worship...of Christ...1 Cor. 1:2 (epikaleō, page 279-280)
To call on is still not to pray & #7 carries the same contextual understanding as the Hebrew. If they meant pray they would say pray. An invocation is not the same as a prayer, but I am pretty sure you already know that.
invocation: (3) a form of prayer invoking God's presence
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/invocation
"As nouns the difference between prayer and invocation is that prayer is a practice of communicating with one's god or prayer can be one who prays while invocation is the act or form of calling for >>>the assistance or presence of some superior being<<<; earnest and solemn entreaty; especially, prayer offered to a divine being."
So it is not something only done to a deity but also to a superior. Your preunderstanding (assumption?) is that it can only be to the one God.
Duncan,
Words are propelry defined one way, but your false teaching asserts the opposite.
invoke: to call for with earnest desire; make supplication or pray for
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/invoke
The quote above is from Wiktionary, it is not mine & you are missing the point of a gloss by quoting the definitions of English words that are being used as gloss for the Greek word and concept that is built on Hebraic understanding.
Research first century "Name-claiming". CF Acts 25:11.
"person and assuming that person's last name for oneself.
Name-claiming happened all the time in the Roman world; the famous historian Josephus, for instance, name-claimed the name Flavius to demonstrate his patronage from emperor Vespasian, who in turn name-claimed the name Caesar in honor of Julius (see ACTS 25:11). The familiar idiom of "calling upon the name of the Lord" (ACTS 2:21, ROMANS 10:12, 1 CORINTHIANS 1:2), likewise, does not simply describe crying out the name of the deity, but rather claiming the deity's name as one's own surname, and thus claiming to be of his family. The name Christ, for instance, means Anointed and since we all share in the anointing (1 JOHN 2:20-27), those who are "in Christ" are Christs (not Christians). Jesus Christ is of course the initial and most famous Christ ... but since Jesus Christ is incarnate in his people, the world is full of Tom Christs, Dick Christs and Harry Christs (and the New Jerusalem is a kind of Citadel of Ricks, but then of Christs).
Name-claiming is obviously an ancient practice; many Pharaohs and other kings incorporated god-names into their own, and a large majority of Hebrew names incorporate references to the Creator via specific theologies: hence the many -ab, -yah and -el names."
Looking at this the other way around, see Isaiah 43:1.
Did god worship Israel?
I think the onus is on you to prove your interpretation of calling upon, and this does not mean unqualified statements in your lexicons of choice.
Also 1 CORINTHIANS 7:20.
Also 1 CORINTHIANS 7:20.
Luke 9:49-50 is interesting.
Acts 3:6
For name-claiming also see Matthew 1:21,23 & Luke 1:31 & Isaiah 7:14. The Christ would be specifically owned/with El and YHVH. To be given the name Joshua was significant for a number of reasons. "Yah is deliverance", which is directed to his god not to himself, just as the one who got Israel into the promised land was god and not the man he directed - Joshua.
If you can keep it to one post it won't be so fragmented. You are confused about Isaiah 43:1. If one honors God that means he/she worships God, but if God honors a person it doesn't mean God worships them (1 Samuel 2:30).
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