Tuesday, November 22, 2022

Morphosyntax of Revelation 1:5

Greek (NA28): καὶ ἀπὸ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, ὁ μάρτυς, ὁ πιστός, ὁ πρωτότοκος τῶν νεκρῶν καὶ ὁ ἄρχων τῶν βασιλέων τῆς γῆς. Τῷ ἀγαπῶντι ἡμᾶς καὶ λύσαντι ἡμᾶς ἐκ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ἡμῶν ἐν τῷ αἵματι αὐτοῦ

The more I study so-called solecisms (anomalies), I find that the issue becomes increasingly complex: one should be careful before accusing a writer of using "bad grammar." Revelation 1:5 begins with another ostensible solecism:
καὶ ἀπὸ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. Scholars [point out] that this preposition usually takes the genitive case, which we see at the beginning of the verse, but then appear ὁ μάρτυς, ὁ πιστός, ὁ πρωτότοκος--all of which are nominatives and they're appositional with
Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. Compare Rev. 1:4 for another supposed solecism. In the final analysis, a number of writers attribute the grammar here to Hebraic conventions or Semitic "interference."

ὁ πρωτότοκος τῶν νεκρῶν καὶ ὁ ἄρχων τῶν βασιλέων τῆς γῆς-Compare Colossians 1:18. Buist Fanning (Revelation, page 81) calls attention to the nominatives in apposition to genitive nouns here, which scholars commonly identify as solecisms. Fanning points out that τῶν νεκρῶν could be rendered "of the dead" but it's probably a partitive genitive, so should be translated "from the dead." Numerous MSS reflect this understanding of matters by adding the preposition ek ("from").

Fanning (Revelation, page 82) prefers "the ruler over the kings of the earth" rendering for
ὁ ἄρχων τῶν βασιλέων τῆς γῆς. That seems like he favors a genitive of subordination for this construction although it is not the only translational choice that one could make. This latter expression, ὁ ἄρχων τῶν βασιλέων τῆς γῆς elucidates ὁ πρωτότοκος τῶν νεκρῶν since καὶ is likely epexegetical--see Brian K. Blount, Revelation (NTL Series), page 33. Blount thinks John "skews the grammar" here in order to make a theological point.

Τῷ ἀγαπῶντι ἡμᾶς καὶ λύσαντι ἡμᾶς ἐκ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ἡμῶν ἐν τῷ αἵματι αὐτοῦ-John begins this portion of Rev. 1:5 with a dative phrase that includes a present participle functioning substantivally which is then followed by an aorist participle that functions substantivally: the Lamb loves "us," but he loosed (past tense) "us." See Fanning, Revelation, page 82.

λύσαντι is the preferred reading; it's an aorist active participle from λυω. Some MSS read
λούσαντι instead, but λύσαντι seems better. Vincent's Word Studies relates this explanation:

Read λύσαντι loosed. Trench remarks on the variation of readings as having grown out of a play on the words λουτρόν, a bathing, and λύτρον a ransom, both of which express the central benefits which redound to us through the sacrifice and death of Christ. He refers to this play upon words as involved in the etymology of the name Apollo as given by Plato; viz., the washer (ὁ ἀπολούων) and the absolver (ὁ ἀπολύων) from all impurities. Either reading falls in with a beautiful circle of imagery.
ἐν τῷ αἵματι αὐτοῦ appears to be an instrumental use of the preposition. Compare Romans 3:25; 5:9; 1 Corinthians 11:25; Hebrews 10:19; 1 John 5:6; Revelation 5:9; 7:14.

Cambridge Bible:
The balance of evidence is in favour of the reading “loosed us:” the preposition “in” might easily, in a Hebraistic book like this, be used of an instrument, where we should say “by,” or “with.” So we should probably render “redeemed us from our sins by His own Blood”—the Blood of Christ being conceived as the price of our redemption, as in 1 Peter 1:18-19—not, as in Revelation 7:14, Revelation 22:14 (according to the preferable reading), and perhaps in St John’s 1 John 1:7, as the cleansing fountain foretold in Zechariah 13:1.

9 comments:

Duncan said...

Pindar, Olympian Ode 7 str3 :
"Then was it too that the >>great god<< Hyperionides, giver of light to mortal men, this task to his beloved sons [i.e. his sons by Rhodes] enjoined to ensure well hereafter : that they first to the goddess [Athene after her birth] built a shining altar, and founding holy rites of sacrifice."

Duncan said...

The rituals of sun cult were performed, for example, in the Kushan period by the magas, the Iranian Magi who originated in eastern Iran among the Saka. Further evidence of the cult is the statue of the Iranian sun god in a sanctuary in Kabul, and the frescoes in Bamiyan (Afghanistan) depicting the chariot sun god associated with Mithras.7 There are additional examples of the assimilation between Helios and Mithras. In the “Mithras Liturgy” (IV.475–829) Helios is assimilated to Mithras, ὁ µέγας θεός Helios Mithras (482), who has revealed his mysteries for immortality to the initiated magician and author of that spell. The spell for foreknowledge and memory called “A copy from a holy book” (III.424–466) greets “Helios Mithras” (462).8 In the spell III.98–124, included in the spell III.1–164, “the greatest (µέγιστε) Mithras” is associated with Helios, addressed as “the holy king, the sailor, who controls the tiller of the great god” (100–103 and 81–82). This description must refer to the daily solar sea journey on the boat of the Egyptian sun god Re.9 On the Greco-Egyptian magical amulets inscribed on small pieces of papyrus or gems there are also depictions of Helios driving his four-horse chariot.10

Duncan said...

Sorry, I got confused somehow, these posts were for the previous thread. Not sure what the implications of "great god" are but is certainly in pagan circulations.

Edgar Foster said...

I figured that might have happened in view of the great god reference

Anonymous said...

Rather blindly trying to prove a point here

Do you happen to have a list of the MSS that add “ek” to John’s “firstborn of the dead”?

Edgar Foster said...

For starters, see https://biblehub.com/texts/revelation/1-5.htm

I might be able to find more for you later.

Anonymous said...

Had those, it why I initially said Rev 1:5 and Col 1:18 mean the same either way of ek is the original reading then it def matches Paul’s version in which case it def means the same and Ninc is being misleading again
If ek is not original ( most likely) why do some variants add it? As Biblehub commentaries say to match Col 1:18

Nincsnevem said...

@Anonymous

First of all, you should get a NA28 (https://t.ly/m_AIx), and you could check it up yourself.

The NA28 footnote apparatus mentions a total of one manuscript for Rev. 1:5 that adds "ek", that is the Manuscripts of the Commentary on Revelation by Andreas of Caesarea from the late sixth/early seventh centuries.

David Trobisch writes in 'A User's Guide to the Nestle-aland 28 Greek New Testament':

"Nomina Sacra in 𝔓46
𝔓46, like all New Testament manuscripts, also contains a number of words that are written in a contracted form referred to as nomina sacra (literally translated, “sacred names”). This technical term refers to a set of words such as God, Lord, Jesus, and Christ that are written by noting only the first one or two and the last one or two letters of that word and eliminating the letters in the middle. The scribes marked these contractions by drawing a horizontal line across the top of the word. Not all manuscripts note the same selection of words as nomina sacra, and it is not unusual for a scribe to contract a word in one place and to write out fully the same word in another place of the same manuscript. The first two text lines of the page reproduced from 𝔓46 contain three nomina sacra, all of which are written out fully in NA28."

Anonymous said...

“First of all, you should get a NA28” - I plan too, I don’t enjoy asking others for information.. but if you take note of what I have said in the past you will know why I ask..

“Numerous MSS reflect this understanding of matters by adding the preposition ek ("from"). “ + look at Biblehub
Nice try, but you are simply mistaken
Col 1:18 and Rev 1:5 mean the same..


Nomina sacra has nothing to do with this post so I won’t respond- only that you are being misleading yet again.