1 Corinthians 13:1--"I have become"

The Greek verb γέγονα is a form of γίνομαι: γέγονα is the perfect indicative active first-person singular form of γίνομαι, which means it signifies completed action performed by an agent. Notice how 1 Corinthians 13:1 has "I have become" for γέγονα or "I am become" (KJV). So the action is completed, it really happens (hence, the indicative), and it's first person singular ("I). Compare 1 Corinthians 13:11.

HCSB: "If I speak human or angelic languages but do not have love, I am a sounding gong or a clanging cymbal."

Paul Gardner (1 Corinthians, ZECNT): "Love, as Paul describes it here, is not an extra special grace-gift but is what marks all who are possessed by the Spirit. Gifts being exercised in a context where this is not present, where self is first and God and neighbor second or third, where status is sought rather than humility seen, make the person simply irrelevant spiritually. The person has become like random noise, which has no purpose or meaning. The verb meaning 'to become' or 'to be' (γέγονα) is in an intensive perfect. The present results are what matters to Paul. If this person spoke in this way, without love, then he or she has become or simply is a noisy gong. What Paul is saying is clear thus far."

Intensive Perfect Definition (Daniel Wallace, GGBB, page 574): "The perfect may be used to emphasize the results or present state pro-duced by a past action. The English present often is the best translation for such a perfect. This is a common use of the perfect tense."

John 1:12 and GENESQAI

Here is an old discussion I had with someone about John 1:12 which my partner in dialogue transliterated: OSOI DE ELABON AUTON EDWKEN AUTOIS EXOUSIAN TEKNA QEOU GENESQAI.

My Take:

First off, would you say that GENESQAI is "present tense/aspect"? I would parse it as aorist infinitive middle. Furthermore, it seems to be a constative aorist which expresses action as a whole without regard to the length of time. Therefore, I do not see any idea of continuity in GENESQAI: it is aspectually perfective. Conversely, I would agree that the phrase "TOIS PISTEUOUSIN EIS TON ONOMA AUTOU" expresses continuity. This can be discerned, not only from the aspect of the participial PISTEUOUSIN, but also from the context of 1:12. Hence, I would construe John 1:12 as a statement about those who are deemed "children of God" in this AIWN.

Writing from a post-resurrection perspective, John reports: "as many as did receive him, he gave authority to become children of God." The emphasis is on what Jesus has done as the SHALIACH of the Father, not on the process of humans becoming God's TEKNA. In other words, this Scripture does not nullify my previous observation that even now, Jesus has made it possible for anointed Christians to enjoy the status as adopted children of God.

The primary basis for this statement is 1 John 3:2--AGAPHTOI NUN TEKNA QEOU ESMEN: this passage indicates that sonship is a present reality for those who have "received" Christ and who have been anointed with the spirit of God (2 Cor. 1:21, 22).