It is good to remember that it's not always possible to be dogmatic about genitival constructions: Greek will offer grammatical possibilities many times rather than absolute certainties. Merkle gives one example with 1 Timothy 3:6 (WH): μὴ νεόφυτον, ἵνα μὴ τυφωθεὶς εἰς κρίμα ἐμπέσῃ τοῦ διαβόλου.
How shall we understand the genitival construction εἰς κρίμα ἐμπέσῃ τοῦ διαβόλου? Merkle poses a query to make the student of Greek think: is it "the condemnation that the devil gives" or "the condemnation that the devil receives"? Before answering this query, Merkle reviews uses of the genitive case.
The genitive case is a delimiter and translators often render genitives with "of" (e.g., "the birth of Jesus Christ") but not always. These constructions also contain head nouns along with the genitive term, and the genitive term normally follows the head noun (the qualified or delimited nominal) although writers sometimes reverse this taxis in order to supply emphasis or contrast terms (page 22).
Functions of the genitive case include: possession, relationship, attribution, source, content or material, partitive (also called the wholative genitive), subjective, objective, time, separation, comparison, apposition and direct object. Moreover, a genitive can be subjective or objective when the head noun is verbal. Merkle gives the familiar example in this case, to illustrate the difference between a subjective and objective genitive; he uses the "love of God" which could be either subjective or objective depending on the context. Compare Revelation 1:1.
Chapter 5 then returns to the opening example, namely, 1 Timothy 3:7. Is it talking about "the condemnation that the devil gives" (subjective) or "the condemnation that the devil receives" (objective)? Some commentators maintain the genitive here is subjective and that is a possible reading while others favor the objective reading. Merkle gives reasons for why someone might favor one side or another, then he concludes the chapter without revealing where he stands. I will conclude by quoting scholars that analyze this issue.
Thomas Lea and Hayne Griffin, Jr. (1, 2 Timothy, Titus. New American Commentary Series):
The reference to falling “under the same judgment as the devil” is literally translated from the Greek as “the judgment of the devil.” That literal phrase is capable of two different interpretations. It can refer either to the judgment the devil receives or the judgment the devil causes.61 The translation of the NIV suggests that the former interpretation is preferable. The translation of the NEB (“a judgment contrived by the devil”) reflects the latter interpretations. Fee follows the former interpretation, suggesting that the judgment is that given to the devil by Christ's death and resurrection (cf. Rev 12:7-17; 20:7-10). However, Kelly points out that this interpretation does not prepare us for the devil's role in setting a trap in v. 7. In that verse Paul described Satan as setting a trap for the unwary overseer. It seems best to take the references in both v. 6 and v. 7 as condemnations or spiritual traps Satan causes.62 Proud people will become blind to Satan's working and will fall into defeat, trouble, and ruin (cf. 1 Tim 6:9, where Paul described the progression of falling, entanglement, and drowning). This is a condemnation Satan can inflict on spiritually insensitive leaders. Although Peter's denial of Christ was not due to pride, it displayed an arrogance and conceit that came from blindness to Satan's working (Matt 26:30-35).
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