Ps. 110:1 contains a Messianic use of the word "Lord" (ADHON) and
this passage clearly distinguishes between THE LORD (YHWH) and the Lord of David (the Messiah). Furthermore, ADHON is used with reference to the Pharaoh of Egypt (Gen. 40:1) and also wielded for Joseph who was sent to Egypt by God in order to preserve his family (Gen. 42:10, 30). Cf. Ruth 2:13; 1 Sam. 1:15. So Thomas' use of KURIOS in Jn. 20:28 need not indicate that he was identifying Jesus with YHWH.
As for the term ELOHIM, it too is a term that can be applied to men, angels, and God/gods. Isa. 9:6 probably calls the Messiah, EL GIBBOR. The Catholic NAB, when commenting on this passage, makes the following observation:
"Upon his shoulder dominion rests: authority. Wonder-Counselor: remarkable for his wisdom and prudence. God-hero: a warrior and a defender of his people, like God himself."
Please note the prophecy in Zech. 12:8 as well and its use of ELOHIM.
Bob Utley makes these remarks on 12:8:
"the house of David will be like God, like the angel of the Lord before them" This is a striking metaphor used in the sense of God's empowering of His people. The term for God is the term Elohim, which is used in the sense of supernatural beings (cf. Exod. 4:16; 7:1; I Sam. 28:13; Ps. 8:5; 82:1,6).
The angel of the LORD is often seen as God's representative among the people (cf. Exod. 13:21; 14:19; 23:20-21; 32:34; 33:2,14-15,22). In two passages David is likened to the angel of the Lord (cf. I Sam. 29:9; II Sam. 14:17,20; 19:27). Remember there are three phrases (no VERBS) here which build on each other for literary, not theological, effect.
2 comments:
greetings Edgar, a question about Genesis 1: 2 as to how to translate ruach elohim, the objection they have given me is this: "ruach elohim is literally translated" the spirit of God "some copyists added the word" de " when that word does not appear in ruach elohim then that would indicate that the holy spirit is called God or rather it is God ». that is the argument that has been presented to me, how could I respond to that objection? I would add that you help me with the Hebrew grammar in the phrase ruach elohim to know where it comes from. (omar)
Greetings Omar,
I have not given thought to this aspect of Gen. 1:2, but it is not clear to me how what's written above proves the holy spirit is God. They say that copyists added "de," but what Hebrew word is that? Why would that word show that the spirit is God?
Ruach is just the Hebrew for wind, breath, spirit
Elohim can be translated God or god/gods. It contains a plural suffix, but often refers to the one God of Israel. For the argument that Gen. 1:2 serves as proof of the spirit's deity, see https://fosterheologicalreflections.blogspot.com/2010/05/is-trinity-explicit-bible-teaching-some.html
See the explanation of Gen 1:2 given here: https://biblicalstudies.org.uk/pdf/ijt/26-1_029.pdf
Here is information on the grammar of Gen. 1:2ff--http://people.math.umass.edu/~rsellis/Honors391AH/12translations-of-gen-ch1-v1-5.pdf
Another interesting article is this one: https://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/ted_hildebrandt/otesources/01-genesis/text/articles-books/ouro-gen1_2_pt3_auss.pdf
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